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In this article, we have brought 40 multiple choice questions from class 11 biology's chapter i.e Cell Cycle and Division. In order to clear your doubts, we have provided detailed explanations for every question as well. 

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Questions 1-20

1. The second meiotic division leads to
a) Separation of sex chromosomes
b) Fresh DNA synthesis
c) Separation of chromatids and centromere
d) Separation of homologous chromosomes

2. In meiosis, chromosome number becomes
a) Half of its parent chromosome
b) Same as that of parent chromosome
c) One fourth of its parent chromosome
d) None of the above

3. Consider the following statements about plant cytokinesis
I. It usually occurs by cell plate method
II. The spindle usually persists during cytokinesis
III. Cell plate grows centrifugally
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) I, II and III

4. I.    A    phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
II. In animal cells, during the    B    phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
III. During the    C    phase, proteins are synthesized for the preparation of mitosis, while cell growth continues
Identify the blanks (A-C) to complete the given statements (I-III) with reference to NCERT textbook
a) A-G₂, B-S, C-G₁
b) A-S, B-G₂, C-G₁
c) A-S, B-G₁, C-G₂
d) A-G₁, B-S, C-G₂

5. Select the matched ones. I . S-phase - DNA replication
II. Zygotene - Synapsis
III. Diplotene - Crossing over
IV. Meiosis - Both haploid and diploid cells
V G₂-phase - Quiescent stage
a) I and II only
b) III and IV only
c) III and V only
d) I,III and V only

6. Which type of cell division helps in regeneration of cells?
a) Mitosis
b) Amitosis
c) Meiosis
d) Karyokinesis

7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about meiosis?
I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but only a single cycle of DNA replication
IV. Meiosis-I is initiated after the parental chromosome replication which produce identical sister chromatids at the S-phase
The correct option is
a) I and III
b) II only
c) II and III
d) I, II, III and IV

8. Choose the correct statements regarding cell cycle
I. Interphase is called the resting phase
II. Interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for division
III. The interphase is divided into phases, i.e.,G₁, S and G₂-phase
IV. Interphase represents the phase between the two successive M-phases
The option with correct statements is
a) I and IV
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II, III and IV

9. Crossing over occurs during
a) Leptotene
b) Diplotene
c) Pachytene
d) Zygotene

10. During meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or segregated from each other. How many allele(s) is/are then transmitted to a gamete?
a) Four
b) Two
c) Six
d) One

11. The phragmoplast is organized at the
a) Beginning of anaphase
b) End of anaphase
c) Beginning of telophase
d) End of telophase

12. The morphology of chromosomes can be studied most easily in
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

13. Identify the correct stage of mitosis by viewing the diagram carefully?
a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase

14. The number of chromosomes becomes half in
a) Anaphase-I
b) Anaphase-II
c) Telpohase-I
d) Telophase-II

15. In which of the following phase of cell cycle, mitotic division got arrested?
a) G₂-phase
b) G₀-phase
c) S-phase
d) M-phase

16. Which of the following phase of cell cycle is also known as the resting phase?
a) G₁-phase
b) M-phase
c) S-phase
d) Interphase

17. Differentiated cell remains at which stage?
a) G₁
b) G₂
c) G₀
d) M

18. The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
a) Nucleus
b) Chromosomes
c) Cytoplasm
d) None of these

19. Choose the correct combination of options to select the correct statement for prophase
I. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes
II. The assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by the microtubules
III. Cells do not show organelles when viewed under the prophase
IV. The nucleolus or nucleoli degenerate completely
a) I only
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) All of these

20. Which of the following event distinguishes prophase-I of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?
a) Nuclear membrane breaks down
b) Chromosomes become visible
c) Homologous chromosomes pair up
d) Spindle forms

Answers

1 c  2 a  3 d  4 d  5 a  6 a  7 b  8 d  9 c  10 d  11 b  12 b 13 a  14 a  15 b  16 d  17 c  18 c  19 d  20 c 

Solutions

1 (c)
Meiosis first is allowed by second meiotic division, which is essentially a mitotic division and is referred as mitotic. In anaphase-II of meiosis-II, the chromosome and centromere divide. The sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite pole.

2 (a)
In meiosis (meiotic-I), chromosome number becomes half to that of parent chromosome.

3 (d)
Plant cytokinesis usually occurs by cell plate method. The spindle usually pesists during cytokinesis. Central part of spindle grows in size and forms an interdigited complex called phragmoplast. Cell plate grows centrifugally

4 (d)
A-G₁, B-S, C-G₂.
Post reproductive stage of a cell includes cell growth. The term cell growth is used in the contexts of cell development and cell division. As we are concerned about growth (development) only, it refers to the growth of cell that is to increase in cytoplasmic and organelle volume that is in G₁-phase
S-phase is the sub-phase between G₁-phase and G₂-phase, during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplication in the cytoplasm. The amount of DNA per cell doubles in the nucleus. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C, then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number

5 (a)
S or synthetic phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During this phase, the amount of DNA per cell doubles.
The second stage of prophase-I is called zygotene. During this stage, chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes. Synapsis is accompanied by the formation of a complex structure called synaptonemal complex. 

6 (a)
Mitosis is one of the types of cell division, which helps in regeneration. Because it keeps all the somatic cells of an organism genetically similar, so that they are able to regenerate a part or whole of the organism

7 (b)
During meiosis, four haploid cells are produced by reductional division from a single diploid cell. Parent cell contains replicated chromosomes, but the daughter cells contains unreplicated chromosomes

8 (d)
The interphase, as called the resting phase, is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication.
It is the phase between two successive M-phases
The interphase is divided into three further classes
G₁-phase (Gap 1), S-phase (synthesis) and G₂-phase (Gap 2)

9 (c)
Crossing over occurs during pachytene or thick thread or pachynema substage of prophase-I of meiosis. During this stage, an exchange of portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes occur. At chiasma, the chromatids break rejoin in such a way that sections are exchanged.

10 (d)
Out of two alleles present at the same locus of two chromosomes of a homologous pair, one is transmitted to a gamete as the later receive one chromosome of a homologous pair.

11 (b)
In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation. A number of elements called phragmoplasts are derived from ER and Golgi body. These elements line up at equator during anaphase and later fuse to form cell plate.

12 (b)
During metaphase, the nuclear envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes are spread through the cytoplasm of the cell. Condensation of chromosomes is completed and it can be observed under the microscope. At this stage, the morphology as well as the number of chromosomes can be easily studied

13 (a)
Interphase has variable duration. During this period, the DNA of chromosomes replicates. Chromosome material is in the form of very loosely coiled threads called chromatin. Centrioles already have replicated

14 (a)
During anaphase-I, the number of chromosomes become half.

15 (b)
G₀-phase.
Some cells that do not divide further, exit G₁-phase and enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remains metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism

16 (d)
The interphase is also called the resting phase. It is the time during  which the cell gets prepared for division by undergoing both cell and DNA replication in an orderly manner

17 (c)
The cells, which do not divide further, do not proceed beyond the G₁-phase and start undergoing differentiation into specific type are said to be in G₀-phase.

18 (c)
Division of cyptoplasm is called cytokinesis ( Gr. kitos=cell; kinesis=movement).

19 (d)
At the end of prophase, several characteristic events can be observed. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. Two chromatids attach together to form chromosomes
Assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by, microtubules (proteinaceous components) of the cell cytoplasm. When observed under the microscope cells at the last stage of prophase, do not shows cell organelles like, Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope

20 (c)
Prophase-I of Meiosis Prophase of Mitosis
Prophase-I is very long and elaborate, comprising 5 sub-phases
Prophase chromosomes appear double from the very start
There is no pairing of homologous
Chromosomes, hence no chance of crossing over Prophase is relatively very short and simple
Prophase-I chromosome do not look double in the beginning
Homologous chromosomes pair and often undergo crossing over in prophase-I  

Questions 21-40

21. During mitosis, number of chromosomes gets
a) Change
b) No change
c) May be change if cell is mature
d) May be change if cell is immature

22. I. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles their identity is lost as discrete elements
II. Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters
III. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
Above features indicates which phase of mitosis
a) Anaphase
b) Telophase
c) Cytokinesis
d) S-phase

23. What would be the change in the chromosome number, during S-phase?
a) No change
b) The number of chromosome doubles
c) The number of chromosome doubles only in case of diploid cell
d) The number of chromosome doubles only in case of haploid cell

24. Arrange the following events of meiosis in a correct sequence and choose the correct option
I. Terminalisation
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction of genomes
a) IV, III, II and I
b) III, II, I and IV
c) II, I, IV and III
d) I, IV, III and II

25. What is the approximate percentage duration of cell cycle that comes under interphase in humans?
a) 99%
b) 95%
c) 25%
d) 5%

26. Which of the following stage of meiosis is responsible for deciding genetic constitution of gametes?
a) Metaphase-II
b) Anaphase-II
c) Metaphase-I
d) Anaphase-I

27. …A…. mitotic cell division is only seen in the diploid somatic cells, while the …B… can show mitotic divisions in both haploid and diploid cells.
Identify A and B form the options given below
a) A-Animals; B-plants
b) A-Plants; B-animals
c) A-Bacterial; B-viruses
d) None of these

28. Given diagram indicates which of the following phase of mitosis? Choose the correct option

a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase

29. In meiosis, the chromosome number
a) Reduces by half
b) Increase by twice
c) Increase by four times
d) Reduces by one-fourth

30. The phase between two successive M-phase is called
a) S-phase
b) G₁-phase
c) G₂-phase
d) Interphase

31. At the end of meiosis-II, number of haploid cells formed are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
d) None of these

32. The transition between meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
a) Interkinesis
b) Cytokinesis
c) Diakinesis
d) Karyokinesis

33. Synapsis occurs between
a) A male and a female gamete
b) mRNA and ribosomes
c) Spindle fibres and centromere
d) Two homologous chromosomes

34. In which stage of cell division, chromosomes are most condensed?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

35. Which of the protein is found in spindle fibre?
a) Tubulin
b) Albumin
c) Mucin
d) Haemoglobin

36. Which of the following events occurs during G₁-phase?
a) DNA replication
b) Growth and normal function of cell
c) Mutation
d) Fertilization

37. Select the correct statements regarding S-phase of interphase
I. Occurs between G₁andG₂
II. DNA replication begins in the nucleus
III. Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
IV. As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles
The option with correct statements is
a) IV and III
b) I, II, III and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, II and III

38. A material, which arrests cell division, is obtained from
a) Crocus
b) Colchicum
c) Dalbergia
d) Chrysanthemum

39. During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of sister chromatids. This event is called
a) Interference
b) Complementation
c) Non-disjunction
d) Coincidence

40. I. The cells that do not divide further, exit G₁-phase to enter an inactive stage called …A… phase of the cell cycle II. The cells that are in G₂-phase definitely continue with the …B… phase. Identify A and B to complete the given NCERT statements
a) A-G₀; B-S
b) A-S; B-G₀
c) A-M; B-G₀
d) A-G₀; B-M

Answers

21 b  22 b  23 a  24 b  25 b  26 d  27 a  28 a  29 a  30 d  31 b  32 a  33 d  34 b  35 a  36 b  37 d  38 b  39 c  40 d

Solutions

21 (b)
Mitosis was first observed by Strasburger and termed by W Flemming. During mitosis, chromosome number remain same in the daughter cells. During meiosis (reduction division), the chromosome number reduced to half in the daughter cells.

22 (b)
Telophase is the reverse stage of prophase. During this phase, the cytoplasmic viscosity decreases and the two chromosome groups reorganize themselves into nuclei. A nucleae envelope appears outside the nucleoplasm collected in the area of chromatin. Spindle fibres disappear around the poles and Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are reformed

23 (a)
During S-phase, there is no increase in the chromosomes number. If the cell has diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G_1, even after S-phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n

24 (b)
The correct sequence is
Synapsis → crossing over → terminalisation → disjunction of genomes

25 (b)
The interphase takes approximate 75-95% of the entire generation time

26 (d)
The paternal and maternal chromosomes of each homologous pair segregates during anaphase-I. Although, both (maternal and paternal) chromosomes of a homologous pair have the genes for the same traits, either chromosome of a pair may carry different alleles of the same genes. Therefore, in anaphase-I, homologous chromosomes introduces genetic variability

27 (a)
A-Animals; B-Plants

28 (a)
At the onset of anaphase, each chromosome arranged at the metaphase plate is split simultaneously and the two daughter chromatids, now referred to as chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei, begin their migration towards the two opposite poles. As each chromosome moves away from the equatorial plate, the centromere of each chromosome is towards the pole and hence at the leading edge, with the arms of the chromosome trailing behind. Thus, anaphase stage is chracterised by the following key events
 Centromeres split and chromatids separate
 Chromatids move to opposite poles

29 (a)
After meiosis, the chromosomes get reduce by half, producing haploid cells. The sperm and the egg are haploid cells and when they fuse during fertilization, they produce diploid original

30 (d)
The phase between two successive M-phases is called interphase.
The M-phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs and the interphase represents the phase between two successive M-phases. It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only about an hour. The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle

31 (b)
Meiosis start with one diploid containing copies of chromosome, one from mother and one from father. The cell divides twice, producing up to four haploid cells containing one copy of each chromosome

32 (a)
Interkinesis is the transition stage between meiosis-I and meiosis-II.

33 (d)
In zygotene of prophase-I, homologous chromosomes pair up. This process is called synapsis. One chromosome of the pair is from the male parent and other from the female parent.

34 (b)
In metaphase, chromosomes are shortest and show maximum condensation. Chromosomes are arranged at equatorial metaphasic plate. Structure, size and number of chromosomes are best studied at metaphase.

35 (a)
Microtubules are mainly composed of tubulin protein. These are found only in eukaryotic cellular structures like cilia, flagella, centriole, basal body, spindle fibre, etc.

36 (b)
G₁-phase is called as pre-synthetic phase or post-mitotic phase. It is the longest phase of cell cycle. In G₁-phase, a cell has two options:
 Continues cycle and enters S-phase
 Stops cell cycle and enters G₀-phase for undergoing differentiation.

37 (d)
S-phase is the sub-phase between G₁-phase and G₂-phase, during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplication in the cytoplasm. The amount of DNA per cell doubles in the nucleus. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C, then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number

38 (b)
Colchicine is an antimitotic drug (alkaloid) which is obtained from Colchicum (family-Liliaceae). It binds to one tubulin molecule and prevents its polymerization. The depolymerisation of tubulin result in disappearance of mitotic spindle blocking the cell’s mitotic chromosomal division at metaphase and anaphase.

39 (c)
Non-disjunction occurs when a pair of homologous chromosomes do not separate in meiosis but migrate to the same pole of the cell, resulting in an even number of chromosomes being present in the daughter cells.

40 (d)
A-G_0; B-M

This will be all for this article. See you in the next one. 

Hello students. Are you looking for multiple choice questions from the chapter "Structure of Atom"? You are on the right place. 

In this article, we will be providing you with MCQ questions from the chapter "Structure of Atom". These objective questions will help you in your preparation for CBSE as well as competitive exams. Good Luck! 

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links: 

• Biology MCQ Questions
• Chemistry MCQ Questions
• Physics MCQ Questions
• Mathematics MCQ Questions

Questions

1. Choose the incorrect relation on the basis of Bohr’s theory
a) Velocity of electron ∝1/n
b) Frequency of revolution ∝1/n²
c) Radius of orbit ∝n² Z
d) Force on electron ∝1/n⁴

2. X-rays were discovered by :
a) Becquerel
b) Roentgen
c) Mme. Curie
d) Van Laue

3. Two electrons in the same orbital may be identified with:
a) n
b) l
c) m
d) s

4. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would be respectively:
a) 3 and 5
b) 3 and 7
c) 3 and 9
d) 2 and 5

5. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:
a) 2n²
b) 4l+2
c) 2l+1
d) 4l-2

6. Particle having mass 200 times that of an electron is:
a) Proton
b) Positron
c) Meson
d) Neutron

7. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
a) Mg²⁺
b) Ti³⁺
c) Fe²⁺
d) V³⁺

8. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit
a) By emission of electromagnetic radiation
b) By absorption of any electromagnetic radiation
c) By absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency
d) Without emission or absorption of electromagnetic radiation

9. How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0

10. The number of wave made by an electron moving in an orbit having maximum magnetic quantum number +3 is :
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6

11. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is 16/15R cm. What is the value of n₂?(R=Rydberg constant)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1

12. The statements, which is/are correct:
a) Number of total nodes in an orbital =n-1
b) Number of radial nodes in an orbital =n-l-1
c) Number of angular nodes in an orbital =l
d) All of the above

13. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is 2000Å, what is its energy in ergs?
a) 9.94×10^-12
b) 9.94×10^-19
c) 4.97×10^-12
d) 4.97×10^-19

14. Number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration 1s², 2s² 2p⁴:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

15. A strong argument for the particle nature of cathode rays is that they:
a) Produce fluorescence
b) Travel through vacuum
c) Get deflected by electric and magnetic fields
d) Cast shadow

16. The electronic configuration 1s², 2s² 2p⁶, 3s¹ 3p¹ correctly describes:
a) Ground state of Na
b) Ground state of Si⁺
c) Excited state of Mg
d) Excited state of Al³⁺

17. What accelerating potential is needed to produce an electron beam with an effective wavelength of 0.090Å?
a) 1.86×10⁴ eV
b) 1.86×10² eV
c) 2.86×10⁴ eV
d) 2.86×10² eV

18. Which of the following pairs have identical values of e/m?
a) A proton and a neutron
b) A proton and deuterium
c) Deuterium and an α-particles
d) An electron and γ-rays

19. Positive charge in an atom is:
a) Scattered all over the atom
b) Concentrated in the nucleus
c) Revolving around the nucleus
d) None is true

20. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at. No. of Cr=24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex:
a) 3dxy1, 3dyz1, 3dxz1
b) 3sxy1, 3dyz1, 3dz21
c) 3dx2-y21, 3dz21, 3dxz1
d) 3dxy1, 3dx2-y21, 3dyz1

Answers

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 

Solutions

2 (b)
Roentgen discovered X-rays.

3 (d)
Spins of an electron are ±1/2 in an orbital

4 (c)
No. of subshell= n; no. of orbitals= n².

5 (b)
No. of electrons in an orbital = 2
No. of orbitals in a subshell = 2l+1
∴ No. of electrons in an orbital = 2(2l+1)

6 (c)
Mesons are electrically neutral (π⁰) or charged (π^-, π⁺) particles having their mass 236 times of electron.

7 (c)
Mg^(2+)=[Ne] [Zero unpaired electrons]
Ti^(3+)=[Ar]3d¹[One unpaired electrons]
Fe^(2+)=[Ar]3d^5[Five unpaired electrons]
V^(3+)=[Ar]3d²[Two unpaired electrons]

8 (c)
According to Bohr’s atomic model, if energy is supplied to an electron it may jump from a lower energy level to higher energy level. Energy is absorbed in the form of quanta (or photon). ∆E=hv
Where, v is the frequency.
According to above postulate an electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit by the absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency.

9 (a)
Tritium is the isotope of hydrogen. Its composition is as follows :
1 electron, 1 proton and 2 neutrons

10 (a)
If m= +3 (maximum), then l=3 (maximum). Thus, maximum value of n= 4. Also no. of waves in an orbit = no. of orbit

11 (c)
For Lyman series,

12 (d)
The desired formulae to calculate nodes.

13 (a)

14 (a)
In p-orbitals electrons are present as

15 (c)
Rest all are evidence for wave nature.

16 (c)
Ground state of ₁₂Mg is 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s².

17 (a)

18 (c)

So, deuterium and an α-particles have identical value of e/m

19 (b)
All the protons carrying +ve charge are present in nucleus.

20 (a)
Cr³⁺:1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²3p⁶3d³.
The 3d_xy¹, 3d_xz¹, 3d_yz¹ has lower energy.

These were the 20 questions from this chapter. You can comment below to find more questions.

Hello Aspirants! In this article, we brought to you the multiple choice questions from class 11 Chemistry chapter 1. These questions will be helpful for your CBSE exam preparations, as well as competitive exams like JEE and NEET. Good Luck. 

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links: 

• Biology MCQ Questions
• Chemistry MCQ Questions
• Physics MCQ Questions
• Mathematics MCQ Questions

Questions 1-10

1. The weight of oxygen in one mole each of Fe₂O₃ and FeO is in the simple ratio of:
a) 3 : 2
b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1
d) 3 : 1

2. The equivalent weight of a bivalent metal is 37.2. The molecular weight of its chloride is
a) 412.2
b) 216
c) 145.4
d) 108.2

3. 0.0833 moles of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH₂O contains 1 g of hydrogen. The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
a) C₅H₁₀O₅
b) C₃H₄O₃
c) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
d) C₆ H₁₂O₆

4. The equivalent weight of Zn(OH)₂ in the following reaction is equal to its,
Zn(OH)₂ + HNO₃ ⟶ Zn(OH)(NO₃) + H₂O:
a) (Formula wt.)/1
b) (Formula wt.)/2
c) 2 × formula wt.
d) 3 × formula wt.

5. 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water. The mole fraction of NaCl is:
a) 0.1
b) 0.01
c) 0.2
d) 0.0196

6. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing
a) 2.16 g
b) 2.48 g
c) 2.64 g
d) 2.32 g

7. A solution contains Na₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃. 10 mL of the solution required 2.5 mL of 0.1 M H₂SO₄ for neutralization using phenolphthalein as an indicator. Methyl orange was then added when a further 2.5 mL of 0.2 MH₂SO₄ was required. The amount of Na₂CO₃ in 1 liter of the solution is:
a) 5.3 g and 4.2 g
b) 3.3 g and 6.2 g
c) 4.2 g and 5.3 g
d) 6.2 g and 3.3 g

8. The volume occupied by one molecule of water (density 1 g cm^-3) is:
a) 18 cm³
b) 22400 cm³
c) 6.023×10^-23 cm³
d) 3.0×10^-23 cm³

9. 510 mg of a liquid on vaporization in Victor Meyer’s apparatus displaces 67.2 cm³ of air at (STP). The molecular weight of the liquid is:
a) 130
b) 17
c) 170
d) 1700

10. What volume of 6M HCL should be added to 2M HCL to get 1L of 3M HCL?
a) 0.25 L
b) 1.00 L
c) 0.75 L
d) 2.50 L

Answers

1. d 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. a 

Solutions

Questions 11-20

11. The normality of one molar sodium carbonate solution is:
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 1.5

12. If H₂SO₄ ionises as H₂SO₄ + 2 H₂O → 2 H₃O⁺ + SO₄^2-, then total number of ions produced by 0.1M H₂SO₄ will be
a) 9.03×10²¹
b) 3.01×10²²
c) 6.02×10²²
d) 1.8×10²³

13. W₁ of an element combines with oxygen forming W₂ g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of the element is:
a) [W₁ / W₂ ]×8
b) [W₁/(W₂-W₁ )]×8
c) [(W₂-W₁)/W₁ ]×8
d) [W₁/(W₁-W₂ )]×8

14. A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH₄)₃PO₄ contains 6.36 moles of hydrogen atoms. The number of moles of oxygen atom in the sample is (atomic mass of N = 14.04, H = 1, P = 31, O = 16)
a) 0.265
b) 0.795
c) 2.12
d) 4.14

15. To neutralize 20 mL of M/ 10 NaOH, the volume of M/20 HCl needed is:
a) 10 mL
b) 30 mL
c) 40 mL
d) 20 mL

16. A, E, M, and n are the atomic weight, equivalent weight, molecular weight, and valence of an element. The correct relation is:
a) A = E×n
b) A=M/E
c) A=M/n
d) M=A×n

17. Which one of the following sets of units represents the smallest and largest amount of energy respectively?
a) J and erg
b) erg and cal
c) Cal and eV
d) eV and L-atm

18. The number of atoms present in a 0.635 g of Cu piece will be
a) 6.023×10^-23
b) 6.023×10²³
c) 6.023×10²²
d) 6.023×10²¹

19. What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
a) 89.6 L
b) 67.2 L
c) 44.8 L
d) 22.4 L

20. The numerical value of N/n (where N is the number of molecules in n moles of gas) is:
a) 8.314
b) 6.02 ×10²³
c) 1.602×10^-24
d) 1.66×10^-19

Answers

11. a 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. b 

Solutions

Questions 21-30

21. In the relationship molecular formula = empirical formula × n. The 'n' may have:
a) Any value
b) Zero value
c) Only positive integer value
d) None of the above

22. 10g CaCO₃on heating gives 5.6 g CaO and …. g CO₂.
a) 4.4
b) 5.6
c) 6.5
d) 4.2

23. Which of the following changes with an increase in temperature?
a) Molality
b) Weight fraction of solute
c) Fraction of solute present in water
d) Mole fraction

24. On combustion of 4 g of the methane, 10.46 kJ of heat is liberated. The heat of combustion of methane is
a) 83.68 kJ
b) 10.46 kJ
c) 41.84 kJ
d) 20.93 kJ

25. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)_x. Its VD is 70. The value of x must be:
a) 7
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

26. Choose the wrong statement.
a) 1 mole means 6.023×10²³ particles
b) Molar mass is the mass of one molecule
c) Molar mass is the mass of one mole of a substance
d) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams

27. The term standard solution is used for the solutions whose:
a) Normality is known
b) Molarity is known
c) Strength is known
d) All of these

28. The ratio of the mole fraction of a solute and a solvent in a binary solution is:
a) Ratio of their wt.
b) One
c) Ratio of their mole
d) Zero

29. If in a reaction HNO₃ is reduced to NO, the mass of HNO₃ absorbing one mole of electrons would be
a) 21.0 g
b) 36.5 g
c) 18.0 g
d) 31.5 g

30. At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weighs 60 g. The vapor density of the gas is:
a) 60
b) 120
c) 30
d) 240

Answers

21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. b 

Solutions

Questions 31-40

31. The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen gas is:
a) 6.02×10^11.5
b) 3.01×10²³
c) 3.01×10^11.5
d) 6.02×10²³

32. On analysis a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254 g of iodine (at. mass 127) and 80 g of oxygen (at. mass 16). What is the formula of the compound?
a) IO
b) I₂ O
c) I₂ O₃
d) I₂ O₅

33. The vapor density of a volatile chloride of a metal is 95 and the specific heat of the metal is 0.13 cal/g. The equivalent weight of the metal will be:
a) 6.0
b) 12.3
c) 18.6
d) 24.5

34. The equivalent weight of a certain trivalent element is 20. The molecular weight of its oxide is
a) 152
b) 56
c) 168
d) 68

35. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
a) 3200 cm³
b) 5600 cm³
c) 22400 cm³
d) 11200 cm³

36. Two elements X (at. Wt. 75) and Y (at. wt. 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8% ofX. The formula of the compound will be
a) XY
b) X₂ Y
c) XY₃
d) X₂ Y₃

37. The amount of oxalic acid (hydrated) required to prepare 500 mL of its 0.1 N solution is:
a) 0.315 g
b) 6.3 g
c) 3.15 g
d) 63.0 g

38. The equivalent weight of KMnO₄ for an acid solution is
a) 79
b) 52.16
c) 158
d) 31.6

39. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt solution using diphenylamine as an indicator. The number of moles of Mohr’s salt required per mole of dichromate is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

40. A mixture of CH₄,N₂ and O₂ is enclosed in a vessel of one litre capacity at 0°C. The ratio of particle pressures of gases is 1 : 4 : 2. Total pressure of the gaseous mixture is 2660 mm. The number of molecules of oxygen present in the vessel is
a) (6.02×10²³)/22.4
b) 6.02×10²³
c) 22.4×10²²
d) 1000

Answers

31. d 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. a 

Solutions

Questions 41-50

41. xg of Ag was dissolved in HNO₃ and the solution was treated with excess NaCl when 2.87 g of AgCl was precipitated. The value of x is
a) 1.08 g
b) 2.16 g
c) 2.70 g
d) 1.62 g

42. One mole electron means:
a) N electrons
b) 6.023 ×10²³electrons
c) 0.55 mg electrons
d) All of these

43. A signature, written in carbon pencil weighs 1 mg. What is the number of carbon atoms present in the signature?
a) 5.02×10²³
b) 5.02×10²⁰
c) 6.02×10²⁰
d) 0.502×10²⁰

44. The minimum quantity of H₂S needed to precipitate 63.5 g of Cu²⁺ will be nearly:
a) 63.5 g
b) 31.75 g
c) 34 g
d) 20 g

45. An unknown element forms an oxide. What will be the equivalent weight of the element if the oxygen content is 20% by weight?
a) 16
b) 32
c) 8
d) 64

46. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The molecular weight of cortisone is 360.4. what is the percentage of carbon in cortisone?
a) 59.9%
b) 75%
c) 69.98%
d) None of these

47. Which mode of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
a) Molality
b) Percent by weight
c) Mole fraction
d) All of these

48. An ion is reduced to the element when it absorbs 6×10²⁰ electrons. The number of the equivalent of ion is:
a) 0.1
b) 0.01
c) 0.001
d) 0.0001

49. The volume of 0.1 MH₂ SO₄ required to neutralize 30 mL of 2.0 M NaOH is:
a) 100 mL
b) 300 mL
c) 400 mL
d) 200 mL

50. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because
a) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
b) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
c) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
d) Oxygen atomic weight is variable

Answers

41. b 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. c 

Solutions

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In this article, we will be posting 40 objective questions from the Bioloy chapter "Biological Classification" which might be important for the coming NEET exam next year. We have also provided answer keys as well as detailed solutions for every question so that there is no doubt left in your mind. 

Question 1-20

1. Osmoregulation in Paramecium is a function of
 a) Contractile vacuole
 b) Trichocysts
 c) Cytopyge
 d) Cytostome

2. Fungi imperfecti includes

 a) Aspergillus and Penicillium

 b) Alternaria and Trichoderma

 c) Ustilago and Puccinia

 d) Alternaria and Penicillium

3. Which of the following is a non-hyphal unicellular fungus?
 a) Yeast
 b) Puccinia
 c) Ustilago
 d) Alternaria

4. Auxospores and Homocyst are formed, respectively by
 a) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria
 b) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
 c) Some diatoms several cyanobacteria
 d) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms

5. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in
 a) DNA instead of RNA
 b) DNA
 c) RNA instead of DNA
 d) Protein coat

6. Consider the following statements
I. Mycelium is branched and septate
II. The asexual spores are generally not formed
III. Vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation
IV. Sex organs are absent but sexual reproduction takes place by somatogamy
V. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in basidium to form haploid four basidiospores
Vi. Basidia are arranged in fruiting bodies called basidiocarp
The above statements are assigned to
 a) Sac fungi
 b) Bracket fungi
 c) Imperfecti fungi
 d) Club fungi

7. Aristotle classified the plants on the basis  of their morphological characters and categorized them into
 a) Trees, shrubs, and herbs
 b) Algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
 c) Embryophytes and tracheophytes
 d) Algae and embryophytes

8. Citrus canker is a
 a) Viral disease
 b) Bacterial disease
 c) Fungal disease
 d) Protozoan disease

9. Which is correct?
 a) RNA is the genetic material of bacteria
 b) RNA is the genetic material of all virus
 c) DNA is the genetic material of some organism
 d) Some virus has RNA as genetic material

10. African sleeping sickness is caused by
 a) Trypanosoma
 b) Leishmania
 c) Latimeria
 d) Plasmodium

11. Read the following statement about bacteria and select the correct option 
 a) Bacteria are simple in structure but complex in behavior
 b) Bacteria are complex in structure but simple in behavior
 c) Bacteria are simple in both structure and behavior
 d) Bacteria are complex in both structure and behavior

12. Which of the following is a Gram-negative bacterium?
 a) Escherichia coli
 b) Bacillus subtillis
 c) Streptomyces coelicolor
 d) Ampycolatopsis orientalis

13. Virus consists of 
 a) Nucleic acid
 b) Protein
 c) Both (A) and (B)
 d) None of these

14. Parasitic and saprophytic conditions are more familiar in
 a) Fungi
 b) Bacteria
 c) Algae
 d) Ferns

15. Bacteriophage releases lysozyme during
 a) Penetration phase
 b) Eclipse phase
 c) Absorption phase
 d) Maturation phase

16. Cladonia rangiferina is a/an
 a) Algae
 b) Lichen
 c) Fungus 
 d) Angiosperm

17. According to the five kingdom classification bacteria belong to
 a) Protista
 b) Monera
 c) Plantae
 d) Archaea

18. Which of the following is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium present in the soil?
 a) Nitrosomonas
 b) Rhizobium
 c) Azotobacter
 d) Pseudomonas

19. The genetic material of rabies virus is
 a) Double-stranded RNA
 b) Single stranded RNA
 c) Double-stranded DNA
 d) Single-stranded DNA

20. All of the following fungi belong to Phycomycetes, except
 a) Rhizopus
 b) Mucor
 c) Albugo
 d) Agaricus

Answer

1.a  2.b  3.a  4.a  5.c  6.b  7.a  8.b  9.d  10.a  11.a  12.a  13.c  14.a  15.a  16.b  17.b  18.c  19.b  20.d  

Solution

1 (a)
Osmoregulation in Paramecium is a function of the contractile vacuole. Contains two contractile vacuoles, which have fixed positions near the body ends in the ectoplasm of the aboral side. Each vacuole contains a definite unit membrane covering called a vacuolar condensation membrane.

2 (b)
Fungi imperfecti includes Alternaria, Trichoderma, and Colletotrichum

3 (a)
Yeast is unicellular, degenerated, non-mycelial, saprophytic fungi possessing no hyphae. But sometimes, the chain of buds is formed during rapid growth, which may give the false appearance of a mycelium and called a pseudo mycelium

4 (a)
The bacillariophyceae members (diatoms) are microscopic, eukaryotic, unicellular, or colonial coccoid algae. These algae are sexually reproduced by the formation of auxospores in most cases. Homocysts are formed by a few cyanobacteria.

5 (c)
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a retrovirus. The name retrovirus comes from the fact that it has two single strands of genomic RNA and enzyme reverse transcriptase which converts virus RNA into a single strand of DNA.

6 (b)
Commonly known forms of class-Basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi, or puffballs. The mycelium is branched and septate.
The asexual spores are generally not found, but vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common. Sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by the fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes.
The resultant structure is dikaryotic, which ultimately gives rise to basidium. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium producing four basidiospores. The basidiospores are exogenously produced on the basidium. The basidia are arranged in fruiting bodies called basidiocarps

7 (a)
Trees, shrubs, and herbs.
Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification. He used simple morphological characters to classify plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs. He also divided animals into two groups, those that had red blood and those that did not

8 (b)
Citrus canker is a disease affecting citrus species that is caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas axonopodis

9 (d)
Some viral families (Picornaviridae, Togaviridae, Rhabdoviridae, Reoviridae, Retroviridae, etc) contain RNA (either single or double-stranded) as their genetic material.

10 (a)
The genus Trypanosoma is parasitic in the blood of most of the vertebrates. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness.

11 (a)
Bacteria are simple in structure but complex in behavior

12 (a)
The Gram stain is named after the developer Christian Gram. About 75% of known bacteria are Gram negative e.g., Salmonella, Pseudomonas, Vibrio, Helicobacter, Haemophilus, Escherichia.

13 (c)
Structurally, viruses are very diverse, varying widely in size, shape, and chemical composition. The nucleic acid of the virus is always located within the virion particle and is surrounded by a protein shell called the capsid. The complete complex of nucleic acid and protein, packaged in the virion is called the virus nucleocapsid.

14 (a)
The fungi are achlorophyllous, heterotrophic organisms, which cannot prepare their own food. They live as either parasites or saprophytes. However, some forms live symbiotically with other green forms. So, parasitic and saprophytic conditions are more familiar in fungi.

15 (a)
Bacteriophage is the virus that causes infection of bacteria. It releases lysozyme during the penetration phase.

16 (b)
Cladonia mangiferin is reindeer moss. It is a furticose lichen. It is used as food for reindeer, musk, ox, and other wild animals of the Arctic Tundra zone.

17 (b)
Bacteria are prokaryotes. In the kingdom system of classification of R H Whittaker, all prokaryotes are included in kingdom-Monera.

18 (c)
The genus Azotobacter comprises large, free-living, Gram-negative, obligately aerobic, rod-shaped bacteria that are capable of fixation of nitrogen non-symbiotically.
Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria, Nitrosomanas is a nitrifying bacteria, while Pseudomonas sp. is a denitrifying bacteria.

19 (b)
In rhabdoviruses (rabies, virus, wheat mosaic virus), paramyxoviruses (mumps virus, Sendai virus), picornaviruses (polio virus), orthomyxovirus (influenza virus), the genetic material is single-stranded RNA (ssRNA).

20 (d)
Agaricus belongs to the class Basidiomycetes. Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both edible and poisonous species

Question 21-40

21. Which is correct for bacteria?
 a) They have both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
 b) They absorb light > 900 nm of wavelength 
 c) They release O_2 during photosynthesis
 d) They use H_2 O during photosynthesis

22. Consider the following statements
I. In this group, the Plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies, bearing spores at their tips
II. Spores possess true walls
III. The spores are dispersed by air currents
IV. The spores are extremely resistant and survive for many years even under adverse conditions
The above statements are assigned to
 a) Euglenoid
 b) Slime molds 
 c) Dinoflagellates
 d) Chrysophytes

23. Purified antibiotic penicillin of Penicillium notatum was discovered by
 a) Alexander Fleming
 b) Howard Floxy
 c) Robert Hooke
 d) Carolus Linnaeus

24. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium are
 a) Archaebacteria having eukaryotic histone homolog
 b) Bacteria with cytoskeleton
 c) Archaebacteria with negatively supercoiled DNA as eukaryotes but lacking histones
 d) Bacteria having positively coiled DNA, cytoskeleton, mitochondria

25. Identify the correct pair of events when temperate phages infect bacteria.
I. No prophages are formed
II. Bacterial cell undergoes many divisions.
III. Bacterial cell undergoes immediate lysis.
IV. Prophages are formed
The correct pair is
 a) I and II
 b) II and III
 c) III and IV
 d) II and IV

26. Which of the following is an edible fungus?
 a) Mucor
 b) Penicillium
 c) Agaricus
 d) Rhizopus

27. Animal cells do not have
 a) Plasma membrane
 b) Cell wall
 c) Chloroplast only
 d) Both (a) and (c)

28. Which group of organisms is represented by the given figure?

 a) Dinoflagellates b) Protozoans c) Slime mold d) Euglenoids

29. State whether the given statements are true or false
I. The kingdom system of classification did not differentiate between the heterotrophic group, fungi, and the autotrophic green plants, although they showed a characteristic difference in their wall composition.
II. The Fungi wall contains chitin, while the green plants have a cellulosic cell wall
Codes
 a) I is true, but II is false
 b) I is false, but II is true
 c) I and II are true
 d) I and II are false

30. Under favorable conditions slime molds form
 a) Protonema
 b) Plasmodium
 c) Mycelium
 d) Fruiting bodies

31. Which of the following classes of fungi helps in mineral cycling?
 a) Deuteromycetes
 b) Basidiomycetes
 c) Ascomycetes
 d) Phycomycetes

32. Teichoic acid is present in
 a) Cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria
 b) Cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
 c) Capsid of virus
 d) Protoplasm of mycoplasma

33. Red tide in warm coastal water is caused due to the rapid multiplications of
 a) Euglena
 b) Diatoms
 c) Gonyaulax
 d) Paramecium

34. Which of the following groups are placed under the kingdom-Protista?
 a) Chrysophytes
 b) Dinoflagellate and euglenoids
 c) Slime molds and protozoans
 d) All of the above

35. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Colletotrichum falcatum?
 a) The conidia and conidiophores are aseptate mycelium and setae are septate
 b) The conidia, conidiophores, mycelium, and setae are septate
 c) The conidia are aseptate conidiophores, mycelium and setae septate
 d) The mycelium is septate conidia, conidiophores and setae are aseptate

36. Ainsworth put Rhizopus in
 a) Zygomycotina
 b) Mastigomycotina
 c) Myxomycotina
 d) Ascomycotina

37. The disease caused by a virus which is 42 nm in size and contains double-stranded DNA is
 a) Hepatitis-A
 b) AIDS
 c) Hepatitis-B
 d) Leprosy

38. The disease caused by Trypanosoma is
 a) Yellow fever
 b) Sleeping sickness
 c) Kala-azar
 d) Hey fever

39. In which animal, dimorphic nucleus is found?
 a) Amoeba
 b) Trypanosoma gambiense
 c) Plasmodium vivax
 d) Paramecium caudatum

40. Kingdom-Monera consists of
 a) Unicellular eukaryotes
 b) Multicellular eukaryotes
 c) Bacteria
 d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

21.b  22.b  23.a  24.c  25.d  26.c  27.d  28.d  29.c  30.d  31.a  32.a  33.c  34.d  35.a  36.a  37.c  38.b  39.d  40.c  

Solution

21 (b)
Photosynthetic bacteria contain bacterial chlorophyll as a light-trapping pigment molecule that absorbs light between 800 to 925 nm, depending on the species of bacteria.

22 (b)
Slime molds are saprophytic protists. In slime molds, spores possess true walls. The spores are dispersed by air. They are extremely resistant and survive for many years even under adverse conditions

23 (a)
Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming from Penicillium natatum fungus. Penicillium is called green mold, which belongs to class-Ascomycetes. Today, penicillin is also obtained from Penicillium crysogenum.

24 (c)
Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium are archaebacteria with negatively supercooled DNA as in eukaryotes but lacking histones

25 (d)
Temperate phages are the avirulent lysogenic phages whose nucleic acids get incorporated in the bacterial DNA (lysogenization). When these phages infect bacteria, the phage genome is integrated into the bacterial chromosome, and the bacterial cell undergoes many divisions.

26 (c)
Mushrooms (Agaricus sp.) are common edible fungi. Their fruiting bodies are used for eating

27 (d)
Animal cells do not have cell walls. Plants contain chloroplast (chlorophyll) and can make their own food. Animals cannot make their own food and are dependent on plants and other animals for food

28 (d)
Euglenoids

29 (c)
A kingdom classification is proposed by RH Whittaker. The classification did not differentiate between the heterotrophic group fungi and the autotrophic green plants, though they also showed characteristic differences in their wall composition-the fungi had chitin, while the green plants had cellulose

30 (d)
Slime mold forms an aggregation called Plasmodium, which may grow and spread over several feet. During unfavorable conditions, the Plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips. Spores are extremely resistant and survive for many years

31 (a)
In Deuteromycetes, some members are saprophytes or parasites, while a large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling

32 (a)
Teichoic acid is present in the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria. It is an acidic polymer consisting of carbohydrates, phosphate, and alcohol. It binds metals, acting as receptor sites for some viruses and maintaining cells at low pH to prevent degradation of cell walls by self-produced enzymes.

33 (c)
Gonyaulax.
Some dinoflagellates, such as Gymnodinium and Gonyaulax grows in large number in the seas and make the water look red causing red tides

34 (d)
Kingdom-Protista includes all unicellular eukaryotic organisms like chrysophytes, dinoflagellates, euglenoids, slime molds, protozoans, etc

35 (a)
The conidia and conidiophores are aseptate while mycelium and setae are septate.

36 (a)
As per Ainsworth’s system of classification, Rhizopus comes under the class Zygomycetes (sub-division-Zygomycotina).

37 (c)
Hepatitis-B virus contains double-stranded DNA, while Hepatitis-C, Hepatitis-E, Hepatitis-A, and HIV contain single-stranded RNA.

38 (b)
Trypanosoma gambiense causes West and Central African sleeping sickness or Gambian fever. It is a fatal infection of the nervous and lymphatic systems that is endemic in certain parts of Africa. The vector of the flagellate is the tsetse fly Glossina

39 (d)
Paramecium coudatum contains a smaller diploid micro-nucleus for reproduction and a large polyploid macro-nucleus which leads to metabolism.

40 (c)
The kingdom-Monera includes all prokaryotes, mycoplasma, bacteria, Actinomycetes, and cyanobacteria of blue-green algae

This would be all for this article. You can also use our MCQ questions on all other chapters of Biology, Physics, or Chemistry. Thanks for visiting our website and Good Luck with your endeavors.

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In this article, we have posted 50 multiple-choice questions in the chapter Animal Kingdom. This chapter is considered one of the most important for the NEET exam. For the purpose of clearing your doubts, we have also posted the detailed solutions along with the answer keys. We hope these questions become your ultimate source of revision for your exam. 

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Question 1-20

1. The point by which Annelida advanced over Nematoda is
 a) True coelom
 b) Metameric segmentation
 c) Closed circulation
 d) All of the above

2. A transverse section of Pheretima taken through the 10th segment is observed in a microscope. Which of the following structures can be observed in the section?
 a) Stomach, dorsal blood vessel, ventral blood vessel, supraesophageal vessel, anterior loops, ring vessel, and micro nephridia
 b) Stomach, dorsal blood vessel, ventral blood vessel, lateral hearts, ring vessels and pharyngeal nephridia
 c) Intestine, dorsal blood vessel, ventral blood vessel, supraesophageal vessel, and septal nephridia
 d) Stomach, dorsal blood vessel, sub-neural blood vessel, and lateral hearts

3. Sycon belongs to a group of animals which are best described as
 a) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
 b) Multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
 c) Unicellular or acellular
 d) Multicellular without any tissue organization

4. In which one of the following genus names, its two characters, and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

5. In a frog’s heart, there are muscular ridges that consist of fibers called 
 a) Purkinje fibers
 b) Myonemes
 c) Telodendria
 d) Columnaecarnae

6. Which is not a feature of annelids?
 a) Metameric segmentation
 b) Nephridia
 c) Psedocoelom
 d) Clitellum

7. Which one of the following kinds of animal is triploblastic?
 a) Flatworms
 b) Sponges
 c) Ctenophores
 d) Corals

8. Organ system level of organization is observed in
 a) Chordates
 b) Annelids
 c) Molluscs
 d) All of these

9. Find the odd example.
 a) Sea lily
 b) Sea fan
 c) Sea cucumber
 d) Sea urchin

10. The snake-eating snake is 
 a) Black cobra
 b) King Cobra
 c) Rattlesnake
 d) Anaconda

11. Book lungs are respiratory organs in
 a) Scorpion 
 b) Prawn
 c) Snail
 d) Cockroach

12. In Pheretima, the lateral hearts that connect the supra oesophageal blood vessel with the ventral blood vessel are located in which segments?
 a) 7 and 9
 b) 18 and 19
 c) 14 and 15
 d) 12 and 13

13. Sea anemone belongs to the phylum
 a) Protozoa
 b) Porifera
 c) Coelenterata
 d) Echinodermata

14. Trochophore is the larva of
 a) Neopilina
 b) Chiton
 c) Pila
 d) All of these

15. In the given diagram, what does ‘A’ represent?

 a) Heart
 b) Lateral vessel
 c) Ventral vessel
 d) Dorsal vessel

16. Hydroskeleton is not found in
 a) Mollusca
 b) Echinoderms
 c) Annelida
 d) Cnidarian

17. Aschelminthes are usually
 a) Dioecious
 b) Hermaphrodites
 c) Metagenic
 d) Coelomates

18. Development of Mollusca is
 a) With larvae named trochophore
 b) Always direct without larval stages
 c) With larval stage called glochidium
 d) With the larval stage called wriggler

19. Which character is not the same in Aves and mammals?
 a) Single systemic arch
 b) Metanephric kidney
 c) Seven cervical vertebrae
 d) Homeotherms

20. Study the following features of a fish
I. It is a crossopterygian fish
II. It is found in the river Chalumnae
III. It does not exhibit aestivation
IV. It is an urecotelic animal
Which of the above is true to ‘Neoceratodus’
 a) I and II
 b) II and IV
 c) I and III
 d) I and IV

Answer

1.d 2.a 3.d 4.a 5.d 6.c 7.a 8.d 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.a 13.c 14.d 15.d 16.d 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.c 

Solution

1 (d)
Annelids have a true coelom, metameric segmentation, and closed circulation.

2 (a)
A transverse section of Pheretima taken through the 10th segment shows the following structures- stomach, dorsal blood vessel, ventral blood vessel supraesophageal vessel, anterior loops, ring vessel, and micronephridia. 

3 (d)
Sycon belongs to the phylum Porifera. The porifers are the most primitive group of multicellular animals. They have no tissue grade of organization and represent cell aggregated body plan, hence, included in the sub-kingdom-Parazoa.

4 (a)
Salamandra (salamander) is a member of class-Amphibia. A tympanum represents the ear.

5 (d)
In a frog’s heart, a number of muscular ridges called columnae carne projected from the wall of the ventricle into its cavity, dividing the peripheral part of the cavity into a number of pockets. It prevents suction that would occur with a flat surfaced membrane and thus impairs the heart’s ability to pump efficiently.

6 (c)
Annelids do not possess pseudocoelom but true coelom.

7 (a)
Flatworms (phylum-Platyhelminthes) are triploblastic animals with organs. The cells of the body wall are arranged in three germ layers.
Sponges, ctenophores, and corals are diploblastic animals.

8 (d)
The organ system level of organization is seen in chordates, annelids, and mollusks. i.e., in all phyla from Platyhelminthes onwards

9 (b)
Sea fan (Gorgonia) belongs to the phylum Coelenterata, whereas sea cucumber (Cucumaria), sea urchin (Echinus), and sea lily (Antedon) belong to phylum Echinodermata.

10 (b)
The king cobra (Ophiophagushannah) is the world’s longest venomous snake, which can be measured up to 6.7 meters or 22 feet in length. King cobra is a snake eater and its diet probably consists of other snakes like pythons and even smaller ones of its species. 

11 (a)
Book lungs are the respiratory organs of scorpions and spiders.

12 (a)
The important transverse vessels in the first 13 segments are lateral hearts (segments 7 and 9), anterior loops (segments 10 and 11), and lateral oesophageal hearts (segments 12 and 15).

13 (c)
Sea anemone (Metridium) belongs to the class Anthozoa of phylum-Coelenterata. It inhabits warm coastal Wales along the North Atlantic and Pacific coasts.

14 (d)
Trochophore is a ciliated larval stage of polychaetes (eg, Neries), mollusks, and rotifers. Neopilina, Chiton, and Pila belong to the phylum Mollusca. 

15 (d)
It represents the dorsal blood vessel of earthworms. It is the largest blood vessel. Behind the 13th segment, it is collecting vessels and between 1-3, it is distributing vessels. 

16 (d)
Hydroskeleton is found in Annelids, echinoderms, and other invertebrates for respiration

17 (a)
Aschelminthes are dioecious with separate sexes and females are usually longer than males

18 (c)
Development may be direct or with larval stages called glochidium or veliger

19 (c)
The presence of seven cervical vertebrae is a characteristic feature of mammals only.

20 (c)
Crossopterygians are called lobed fined fishes. Neoceratodus (order Dipnoi) is a crossopterygian fish. It is found in the Burnett and Mary Rivers of Queen’s Land, Australia

Question 21-40

21. In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segments?
 a) 3/4 and 9/10 
 b) 4/5 and 8/9
 c) 5/6 and 7/8
 d) 7/8 and 6/7

22. In frogs, an oviduct is formed by
 a) Wolffian duct
 b) Metanephric duct
 c) Mullerian duct
 d) Bidder’s canal

23. The lifespan of a honey bee drone is 
 a) 3-4 months
 b) 1-2 months
 c) 6-7 months
 d) 10-12months

24. A group of animals having marsupium is
 a) Nonotremata
 b) Eutheria
 c) Metatheria
 d) Pantotheria

25. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
 a) Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
 b) Female cockroach – an ulcer
 c) Male shark – claspers borne on pelvic fins
 d) Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end

26. The excretory cells, that are found in Platyhelminthes are
 a) Protonephridia
 b) Flame cells
 c) Solenocytes
 d) All of these

27. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in
 a) Humans 
 b) Sunflower
 c) Cockroach
 d) Frog

28. Periplaneta has no respiratory pigment in its blood because
 a) Air is conducted directly to the body tissues
 b) It has haemo coelom
 c) It has anaerobic respiration
 d) It lacks blood cells in the blood

29. Wuchereriabancrofti is a common filarial worm. It belongs to the phylum
 a) Platyhelminthes
 b) Nemathelminthes
 c) Annelida
 d) Coelenterata

30. The cross-section of the body of an invertebrate is given below. Identify the animal, which has this body plan. 

 a) Cockroach
 b) Roundworm
 c) Planaria
 d) Earthworm

31. In earthworms, the characteristic internal median fold of the dorsal wall of the intestine called typhlosole is present in 
 a) 5 to 9 segments
 b) 9 to 14 segments
 c) 26 to 35 segments
 d) 15 to last segment

32. Which of the following phyla are schizocoela?
 a) Annelida, Platyhelminthes, and Mollusca
 b) Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca
 c) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, and Annelida
 d) Aschelminthes, Annelida, and Mollusca

33. Columellaauris is found in 
 a) Rabbit
 b) Frog
 c) Man
 d) All of these

34. Which one of the following is not a bird?
 a) Magpie
 b) Albatross
 c) Himalayan quail
 d) Bufo

35. Which of the following blood vessels in the circulatory system of a frog has more oxygenated blood?
 a) Pulmocutaneous artery
 b) Pulmocutaneous vein
 c) Pulmonary artery
 d) Precaval veins

36. Which one of the following features is common to leeches, cockroaches and scorpions?
 a) Nephridia
 b) Ventral nerve cord
 c) Cephalization
 d) Antennae

37. Which of the following cell types is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?
 a) Thesocytes
 b) Pinacocytes
 c) Cnidocytes
 d) Archaeocytes

38. Necturus is commonly known as
 a) The flying frog
 b) The mud puppy
 c) The crested newt
 d) The toad

39. Which of the following displays retrogressive metamorphosis?
 a) Salpa and Herdmania
 b) Doliolum and Oikopleura
 c) Pyrosoma
 d) All of these

40. Which of the following is true of Aves?
 a) They are poikilotherms and have a three-chambered heart
 b) Tiny pebbles eaten by some birds and are used in crushing
 c) They have 10 pairs of cranial nerves
 d) All of the above

Answer

21.a 22.c 23.b 24.c 25.c 26.d 27.c 28.a 29.b 30.c 31.c 32.b 33.b 34.d 35.b 36.b 37.d 38.b 39.d 40.b 

Solution

21 (a)
In Pheretimaposthuma (earthworm), septae are absent between 3/4 and 9/10 segments.

22 (c)
Oviducts of frogs are independently developed by Mullerian ducts.

23 (b)
Drones are male honey bees, developed parthenogenetically, and have a life span of about five weeks (or 1-2 months).

24 (c)
Metatherians are pouched mammals. The complete development of the embryo takes place in an abdominal pouch or marsupium.

25 (c)
A clasper is a male anatomical structure found in some groups of animals and used in mating. Male cartilaginous fish like sharks have claspers formed from the posterior portion of their pelvic fin which serve as intromittent organs used to channel semen into the female’s cloaca during mating.

26 (d)
Platyhelminthes (e.g., Planaria, liver fluke, and tapeworm) possess the simplest tubular excretory system called protonephridia flame cells or splenocytes. Excretory material is ammonia in aquatic flatworms. 

27 (c)
Ommatidium is the basic unit of the arthropod compound eye. It comprises a cornea lens, crystalline cone, and a group of usually 7-8 retinal cells radially arranged around a central rhabdome. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception. 

28 (a)
In the blood of Periplaneta, there is no respiratory pigment because air is conducted directly to the body tissues.

29 (b)
Wuchereriabancrofti (the filarial worm) belongs to phylum-Nemathelminthes.

30 (c)
The given cross-section is of Planaria (acoelomate), a flatworm. Flatworms are devoid of cavities in between the alimentary canal and body wall, hence are acoelomate.

31 (c)
The typhlosolar region in earthworms is from 27 segments onwards and continues up to the last 23-25 segments in front of the anus. Typhlosole increases the absorptive surface area.

32 (b)
When the coelom arises as a result of a split in the mesoderm sheet, it is called schizocoel. In enterocoel, the coelom arises as an outgrowth of the enteron. The pouches pinch off and enlarge until they squeeze out of the blastocoel.
Schizocoel is seen in Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordates. Echinodermata are enter-coelomates.

33 (b)
The middle ear of a frog consists of only a single rod-shaped bone called columellaauris which extends across the tympanic chamber from the tympanic membrane to fenestraovalis. Columellaauris is also present in reptiles and birds. It transmits sound to the inner ear and homologous to the mammalian stapes.

34 (d)
Most of the species of true toads belong to the genus Bufa.

35 (b)
The oxygenated blood from the two lungs is collected by the right and left pulmonary veins, which unite to form a common pulmonary vein (pulmocutaneous vein)which opens directly into the left auricle on the dorsal side.

36 (b)
The ventral nerve cord is common in leeches (Annelida), cockroaches, and scorpions (Arthropoda).

37 (d)
Archaeocytes are the totipotent cells, which provide great regenerating power to sponges. Sex cells (sperm and ova) arise from undifferentiated archaeocytes.

38 (b)
Necturus is also known as mud puppy and belongs to the subclass Urodela.

39 (d)
Metamorphosis is a charge from the juvenile to adult stage in which the larval stage is quite different from the adult stage. In retrogressive metamorphosis, the larva possesses advanced characteristics that are lost during development and the adult is either sedentary or degenerated with primitive characteristics. All urochordates display retrogressive metamorphosis.

40 (b)
Aves have two additional chambers to the alimentary canal: the crop and the gizzard. Birds eat tiny pebbles that lodge in the gizzard and help the muscular gizzard in crushing food. Birds have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

Question 41-50

41. Which one of the following has a biradial symmetry?
 a) Paramecium
 b) Jellyfish
 c) Cockroach
 d) Sea anemone

42. Mouth part of houseflies are
 a) Siphoning type
 b) Sponging type
 c) Biting and chewing type
 d) Piercing and sucking type

43. The zoological name of the common Indian krait is 
 a) Bungaruscaeruleus
 b) Ophiophagus Hannah
 c) Viper Russell
 d) Najanaja

44. Which of the following animals have a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus?
 a) Octopus
 b) Asterias
 c) Ascidia
 d) Fasciola

45. Cellulose digesting zooflagellate found in wood cockroaches is
 a) Lophomonas
 b) Trichomonas
 c) Trichonympha
 d) Leishmania

46. Spiracles found in cockroach are
 a) 2 pairs in the thorax and 100 pairs in the abdomen
 b) 2 pairs in the thorax and 6 pairs in the abdomen
 c) 2 pairs in the thorax and 8 pairs in the abdomen
 d) 2 pairs in the thorax and 4 pairs in the abdomen

47. The phylum Mollusca lacks, one of the following
 a) Visceral hump
 b) Malpighian tubules
 c) Gills
 d) Radula

48. Down feathers are
 a) First feathery covering in birds
 b) Modified filoplumes found near nostrils and eyes
 c) Tail feathers
 d) Wing feathers

49. The number of abdominal segments in male and female cockroaches is
 a) 10, 10
 b) 9, 10
 c) 10, 11
 d) 8, 10

50. Petromyzon and myxine belong to the class
 a) Gnathostomata
 b) Cyclostomata
 c) Urochordata
 d) Protochordata

Answer

41.d 42.b 43.a 44.d 45.a 46.c 47.b 48.a 49.a 50.b 

Solution

41 (d)
In biradial symmetry, the body can be divided into two similar halves by one or two vertical planes only, e.g., sea anemones. The animals, which show radial and biradial symmetry have oral and aboral sides. 

42 (b)
The house fly is characterized by one pair of wings, sponging and lapping types of mouth parts, and short antennae. 

43 (a)
The zoological name of the common Indian krait is Bungaruscaeruleus. Kraits are highly poisonous snakes.

44 (d)
Fasciola hepatica (Sheep liver fluke) belongs to phylum-Platyhelminthes. These worms have incomplete alimentary canals, there is a single opening for both digestion and egestion. This is also called a blind sac body plan.

45 (a)
Lophomonas is the cellulose-digesting zooflagellate found in wood cockroaches.

46 (c)
Spiracles are 10 in number, out of these 2 pairs are found in the thoracic portion, while the rest 8 pairs are found in the abdominal portion.

47 (b)
Phylum-Mollusca lack Malpighian tubules, instead have feather-like gills in the mantle cavity that are useful for respiration and excretion

48 (a)
Down feathers are found only in newly hatched birds, it is the first feathery covering on the body that provides insulation to newly hatched ones

49 (a)
The abdomen of the adult consists of 10 segments, while the embryo has 11 segments.

50 (b)
Class-Cyclostomata includes round-mouthed fish like lampreys (Petromyzon) and hags (Myxine)

That would be all for this article. If you need more questions on this chapter or any other chapter, you can search on our website. Thanks for visiting our website. Good luck with your future endeavors. 

Hello NEET aspirants. In this article, we have brought to you, 40 objective questions for the upcoming NEET exam from the biology chapter - Morphology of Flowering Plants. Answer keys are available to match your answers and detailed solutions to clear your doubts. Good Luck with your preparations. 

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links: 

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Questions 1-20

1. Which of the following are not characteristic features of Fabaceae?
 a) Tap root system, compound leaves, and raceme inflorescence
 b) Flowers actinomorphic, twisted aestivation, and gamopetalous
 c) Stamens ten, introrse, basifixed, and dithecous
 d) Monocarpellary, ovary superior, and bent stigma

2. When the floral appendages are in multiple of 3, 4, and 5, they are respectively called
 a) Trimerous, tetramerous, pentamerous
 b) Pentamerous, tetramerous, trimerous
 c) Tripinnate, tetra pinnate, pentapinnate
 d) Tetrapinnate, tripinnate, pentapinnate

3. The type of leaf in Daucus carota is
 a) Simple
 b) Bipinnate
 c) Tripinnate
 d) Decompound

4. The most advanced fruit is
 a) Cypsela
 b) Caryopsis 
 c) Pome
 d) Etaerio of drupe

5. Identify A, B, and C  in the given diagram

 a) A-Seed coat, B-Micropyle, C-Hilum
 b) A-Seed coat, B-Hilum, C-Micropyle
 c) A-Hilum, B-Seed coat, C-Micropyle
 d) A-Micropyle, B-Seed coat, C-Hilum

6. The pedicel of the flower is called
 a) Thalamus
 b) Receptacle
 c) Both (a) and (b) 
 d) Either (a) or (b)

7. A tree that has a strong erect stem with hollow internodes and solid nodes, is known as
 a) Caudex
 b) Deliquescent
 c) Scape
 d) Culm

8. Identify the correct order (root) from base to root apex
I. Mineral absorption zone
II. Soil penetration zone
III. Cell number increasing zone
V. Cell elongation zone
 a) II, I, IV, III
 b) I, II, III, IV
 c) IV, III, II, I
 d) III, IV, I, II

9. Study the following statements and choose the correct option.
I.Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf.
II. Pulvinus leaf base is present in some leguminous plants.
III. In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green, and synthesize food.
IV.Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava.
 a) II and IV are correct but I and III are wrong
 b) I and III are correct but II and IV are wrong
 c) I and IV are correct but II and III are wrong
 d) II, III, and IV are correct but I is wrong

10. The number of stomata present per cm² of a leaf is
 a) 1000
 b) Less than 100
 c) One million
 d) None of these

11. Which one of the following series includes the orders Ranales, Parietals, and Malvales?
 a) Bicarpellatae
 b) Thalamiflorae
 c) Calyciflorae
 d) Disciflorae

12. Which pair of the following plants represents the condition of modification of stipules into spines? 
 a) Euphorbia and Ziziphus
 b) Citrus and Euphorbia
 c) Ziziphus and Bougainvillea
 d) Bougainvillea and Citrus

13. Amla belongs to family
 a) Labiatae
 b) Fabaceae
 c) Solanaceae
 d) Euphorbiaceae

14. The leaves are modified into tendrils, hooks, pitchers, and bladder in the following plants respectively
 a) Sweet pea, cat’s nail, Nepenthes, Utricularia
 b) Sweet pea, cat’s nail, Utricularia, Nepenthes
 c) Nepenthes, cat’s nail, sweet pea, Utricularia
 d) Nepenthes, sweet pea, cat’s nail, Utricularia

15. Fruits are formed in
 a) Brassica
 b) Fern
 c) Cycas
 d) Funaria

16. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in
 a) Ficus
 b) Tulsi
 c) Cedrus
 d) Calotropis

17. I. Bear leaves and branches
II. Conduction of water and minerals
III. Storage of food
These are the functions of
 a) Root
 b) Stem
 c) Leaves
 d) Root cap

18. Tulips belong to the family
 a) Asteraceae
 b) Liliaceae
 c) Brassicaceae
 d) Malvaceae

19. The floral formula is of 

belongs to plant
 a) Allium cepa
 b) Sunflower
 c) Cucurbita
 d) Brassica

20. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Fabaceae?
 a) Descendingly imbricate, ten stamens, diadelphous, ovary superior
 b) Sepals five, gamosepalous, imbricate aestivation, placentation marginal
 c) Monocarpellary, ovary superior, style long, slightly bent at the apex
 d) Corolla, five petals, polypetalous, anterior one large and outermost

Answers

1.b  2.a  3.d  4.d  5.b  6.d  7.d  8.a  9.a  10.a  11.b  12.a  13.d  14.a  15.a  16.a  17.b  18.b  19.a  20.d 

Solutions

1 (b)
In Fabaceae, flowers are zygomorphic, imbricate aestivation, and polypetalous.

2 (a)
A flower may be trimerous, tetramerous, or pentamerous when the floral appendages are in multiples of 3, 4, or 5 respectively. Flowers with bracts, reduced leaves found at the base of the pedicel, are called bracteates and those without bracts are called ebracteate

3 (d)
Daucus carota contains decompounds type of leaves, in which leaf rachis are divided more than three times and gives rise to a small axis on which leaflets are arranged.

4 (d)
According to Hutchinson’s general principles adopted for the classification of flowering plants, aggregate fruits (etaerio of drupe) are more recent than single fruits.

5 (b)

Seed coat The seed is covered by two coverings (layers). The outer layer is thick and tough called the testa. The inner one is thin and whitish called tegmen.
Hilum The concave side of the seed is darker with a whitish elongated oval scar called hilum.
Micropyle It is the small pore present at the end of the hilum. It takes part in absorbing the water during seed germination.
Cotyledons These are also called seed leaves. The two cotyledons are attached to the embryo axis in between the plumule and radicle. Cotyledons are large, white, kidney-shaped. They store food.

6 (d)
Thalamus or receptacle.
The flower is a reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It is meant for sexual reproduction. A typical flower has four different kinds of whorls arranged successively on the swollen end of the stalk or pedicel called thalamus or receptacle

7 (d)
A stem with hollow internodes and solid nodes is called a culm e.g., bamboo, sugarcane, etc. 

8 (a)
Below the root cap, the area of new cell formation is called a meristematic zone. Behind the meristematic zone is the area of cell enlargement. Below this zone, the absorption of water and then mineral takes place. This water and mineral absorption comes under the zone of maturation

9 (a)
In some legumes, the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
In the opposite phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each mode and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropic (Akon/madar) and guava (Psidium) plants.

10 (a)
The number of stomata present per cm² of a leaf is known as stomatal frequency. Normally, it ranges from 1000-60000 per cm² or 10-600 mm²   in different plant species.

11 (b)
Thalamiflorae is a series that contains orders Ranales, Parietales, Malvales, etc.

12 (a)
In Euphorbia of the family Euphorbiaceae and Ziziphus of the family Rhamnaceae, the stipules are modified into spines. 

13 (d)
Emblica officinalis is the botanical name of amla and it belongs to the family Euphorbiaceae. 

14 (a)
Leaf tendrils Modified thread/spring-like sensitive structures of leaf or leaf parts, e.g., in sweet pea (Lathyrus odortus).
Leaflet hooks In unguis-cati (cat’s nail), the terminal leaflets are modified into cured hooks (as of cat) for climbing.
Pitcher Lamina in Nepenthes is modified into a pitcher, which functions in catching and digesting microorganisms or storing water.
Bladder In Utricularia (an aquatic insectivore), a few leaf segments are modified into the bladder (balloon-like structures) for trapping small aquatic organisms.

15 (a)
Fruit is the mature ripened ovary of the flower, enclosing the seeds. It is the characteristic feature of Angiospermic plants, e.g., Brassica.

16 (a)
Ficus has hypanthodium inflorescence.

17 (b)
Characteristics of stem
(i) Stem develops from plumule of the embryo
(ii) Stem is ascending part of the plant axis
(iii) It bears terminal bud growth
(iv) The stem differentiated into nodes and internodes
(v) The young stem is capable of performing photosynthesis
(vi) Stem are usually positively phototropic, negatively geotropic, and negatively hydrotropic

18 (b)
Tulipa, Allium, Lilium, Aloe, Dracaena, etc, belong to the family Liliaceae.

19 (a)
Allium cepa (onion) belongs to the family Amaryllidaceae. The floral formula of Allium cepa is

20 (d)
The corolla of the Fabaceae family has five petals, polypetalous, Papilionaceous, descending imbricate aestivation, one posterior long standard, two lateral short wings, and two anterior petals joined to each other forming a keel.

Questions 21-40

21. Wringed petioles are characteristic of
 a) Polygonum
 b) Citrus
 c) Neem
 d) Banana

22. The triploid number of chromosomes of the first taxon is 10 times more than the haploid number of chromosomes of the second taxon, while the diploid number of the third taxon is six times more than the haploid number of the fourth taxon. Which one of the following shows the ascending order of the number of chromosomes in their respective endosperm? 
 a) Oryza-Allium-Saccharum-Nicotiana
 b) Allium-Oryza-Nicotiana-Saccharum
 c) Nicotiana-Saccharum-Oryza-Allium
 d) Saccharum-Oryza-Nicotiana-Allium

23. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
 a) Cotyledon
 b) Endosperm
 c) Aleurone layer
 d) Plumule

24. Colchicum autumnale belongs to
 a) Solanaceae
 b) Fabaceae
 c) Liliaceae
 d) Malvaceae

25. Clinging roots are found in 
 a) Orchids
 b) Trapa
 c) Podostemon
 d) Screwpine

26. Single-seeded winged fruits are called
 a) Achene
 b) Cypsella
 c) Samara
 d) Caryopsis

27. The family containing mustard and its main characters are
 a) Brassicaceae - Tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, siliqua type fruit
 b) Brassicaceae - Pentamerous flowers, many stamens, penta-carpellary gynoecium, capsule-type fruit 
 c) Solanaceae – Pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bi-carpellary gynoecium berry-type fruit
 d) Poaceae – Trimerous flowers, three stamens, monocarpellary gynoecium, caryopsis type of fruit 

28. Which one of the following floral characters, is shared by Ruscus and ray florets of Tridax?
 a) Nature of perianth
 b) Unisexuality
 c) Zygomorphy
 d) Number of stigmas

29. Identify the types of roots in the diagram A and B

 a) A-Fibrous; B-Tap
 b) A-Adventitious; B-Fibrous
 c) A-Fibrous; B-Adventitious
 d) A-Tap; B-Fibrous

30. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
 a) Wall and the tapetum
 b) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
 c) Only the wall of the sporangium
 d) Both the wall and the sporogenous cells

31. The fruit which develops from inflorescence is called
 a) Achene
 b) Berry
 c) Etaerio
 d) Composite fruit

32. Caryopsis is found in
 a) Sunflower
 b) Maize
 c) Pea
 d) Datura

33. The floral formula 

is that of
 a) Tulip
 b) Soybean
 c) Sunnhemp
 d) Tobacco

34. If a primary root continues to grow, the type of root system will be known as
 a) Secondary
 b) fibrous
 c) tap
 d) stilt

35. Largest flower is
 a) Rafflesia Arnoldi
 b) Helianthus annuus
 c) Welwitschia morabilis
 d) Nelumbo nucifera

36. The pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branches is called
 a) Phyllotaxy
 b) Petiole
 c) Stipule
 d) Both (a) and (b)

37. Arrangement of sepals or petals with respect to the other members of the same whorl is known as
 a) Gamopetalous
 b) Polypetalous
 c) Aestivation
 d) Vernation

38. The reproductive unit of angiosperms is
 a) Inflorescence
 b) Floral buds
 c) Flower
 d) Flower meristem

39. The correct floral formula of chili is

40. Velamen is found in
 a) Vanda
 b) Rosa
 c) Viscum
 d) Santalum

Answers

21.b  22.b  23.a  24.a  25.a  26.c  27.a  28.b  29.d  30.d  31.d  32.b  33.d  34.c  35.a  36.a  37.c  38.c  39.a  40.a  

Solutions

21 (b)
A petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or sub-cylindrical structure of a leaf that joins the lamina to the base. Green, flattened petioles may be called winged petioles, e.g., Citrus and Dionaea.

22 (b)
Allium, 2n=16 then endosperm has 24 chromosomes.
Oryza, 2n=24 then endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
Nicotiana, 2n=48 then endosperm has 72 chromosomes.
Saccharum 2n=82-124 (Indian cane) then endosperm has 123-186 chromosomes.

23 (a)
In wheat or maize (family Poaceae), the Scutellum is thought to be a modified cotyledon or seed leaf.

24 (a)
Colchicum autumnale belongs to the Liliaceae family Colchine is obtained from colchicum, which is used to induce polyploidy in tissue culture

25 (a)
Epiphytic roots are also called hygroscopic roots. Epiphytes bear three types of roots clinging, absorbing, and hygroscopic aerial. These roots develop in some orchids, which grow as epiphytes upon the trunks or branches of trees. They hang freely in the air and absorb atmospheric moisture with the help of a special sponge-like tissue called velamen. Velamen is modification of epidemis, e.g., Vanda, Dendrobium, etc.

26 (c)
Samara is a single-seeded fruit developing from a superior bi or tricarpellary ovary. The pericarp becomes flat like a wing, e.g., Holoptera.

27 (a)
Mustard (Brassica campestris) belongs to the family Brassicaceae (Cruciferae). Mustard is characterized by a tetramerous flower, six stamens with tetradynamous condition (i.e., two stamens of the outer whorl are smaller than the four stamens of the inner whorl), carpellary gynoecium and siliqua type of fruit.

28 (b)
Ruscus belongs to the family Liliaceae (monocot). It produces unisexual flowers.

29 (d)
Primary roots and their branches constitute the tap root system as seen in mustard plants (figure A).
Roots originate from the base of the stem and constitute the fibrous root system as seen in the wheat plant (figure B)

30 (d)
The archesporial cells divide periclinal, cutting off the primary parietal layer (forming a wall later on) towards the outer side and primary sporogenous cells towards the inner side. 

31 (d)
The multiple or composite fruit develops from the entire inflorescence. These are known as infructescence.

32 (b)
Caryopsis is an indehiscent dry simple fruit that develops from monocarpellary, unilocular, and superior ovary. It is a one-seeded fruit in which the seed coat is fused with the pericarp. Such fruit is also called grain, e.g., members of the family Poaceae.

33 (d)
Tobacco belongs to the family Solanaceae. Its floral formula is

34 (c)
When the primary root, which develops from the radicle of the embryo remains as the main root throughout the life of the plant and grows straight downwardly in the soil, it is called tap root, e.g., roots in dicot plants.

35 (a)
Rafflesia Arnoldi is the largest flower.

36 (a)
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. These are usually three types.

37 (c)
Aestivation The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral buds with respect to other members of the same whorl is known as aestivation
The main types of aestivation are
(i) Valvate When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin without overlapping e.g., Calotropis
(ii) Twisted If one margin of the appendages overlaps that of the next one and so on. e.g., China rose, cotton, lady’s finger
(ii) Imbricate If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, e.g., Cassia and gulmohar
(iv) Vexillary In pea and bean flowers, there are five petals, the largest (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petals (keel) this type of aestivation is known as vexillary or papilionaceous

38 (c)
The flower is a reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It is meant for sexual reproduction. A typical flower has four different kinds of whorls arranged successively on the swollen end of the stalk or pedicel called thalamus or receptacle

40 (a)

Velamen tissue is found in the aerial roots of certain epiphytic orchids (e.g., Vanda). Epiphytic plants are the group of plants, which grow on other plants for attachment purposes. 

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