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In this article, we will be providing you with MCQ questions from the chapter "Structure of Atom". These objective questions will help you in your preparation for CBSE as well as competitive exams. Good Luck! 

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Questions

1. Choose the incorrect relation on the basis of Bohr’s theory
a) Velocity of electron ∝1/n
b) Frequency of revolution ∝1/n²
c) Radius of orbit ∝n² Z
d) Force on electron ∝1/n⁴

2. X-rays were discovered by :
a) Becquerel
b) Roentgen
c) Mme. Curie
d) Van Laue

3. Two electrons in the same orbital may be identified with:
a) n
b) l
c) m
d) s

4. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would be respectively:
a) 3 and 5
b) 3 and 7
c) 3 and 9
d) 2 and 5

5. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:
a) 2n²
b) 4l+2
c) 2l+1
d) 4l-2

6. Particle having mass 200 times that of an electron is:
a) Proton
b) Positron
c) Meson
d) Neutron

7. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
a) Mg²⁺
b) Ti³⁺
c) Fe²⁺
d) V³⁺

8. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit
a) By emission of electromagnetic radiation
b) By absorption of any electromagnetic radiation
c) By absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency
d) Without emission or absorption of electromagnetic radiation

9. How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0

10. The number of wave made by an electron moving in an orbit having maximum magnetic quantum number +3 is :
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6

11. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is 16/15R cm. What is the value of n₂?(R=Rydberg constant)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1

12. The statements, which is/are correct:
a) Number of total nodes in an orbital =n-1
b) Number of radial nodes in an orbital =n-l-1
c) Number of angular nodes in an orbital =l
d) All of the above

13. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is 2000Å, what is its energy in ergs?
a) 9.94×10^-12
b) 9.94×10^-19
c) 4.97×10^-12
d) 4.97×10^-19

14. Number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration 1s², 2s² 2p⁴:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

15. A strong argument for the particle nature of cathode rays is that they:
a) Produce fluorescence
b) Travel through vacuum
c) Get deflected by electric and magnetic fields
d) Cast shadow

16. The electronic configuration 1s², 2s² 2p⁶, 3s¹ 3p¹ correctly describes:
a) Ground state of Na
b) Ground state of Si⁺
c) Excited state of Mg
d) Excited state of Al³⁺

17. What accelerating potential is needed to produce an electron beam with an effective wavelength of 0.090Å?
a) 1.86×10⁴ eV
b) 1.86×10² eV
c) 2.86×10⁴ eV
d) 2.86×10² eV

18. Which of the following pairs have identical values of e/m?
a) A proton and a neutron
b) A proton and deuterium
c) Deuterium and an α-particles
d) An electron and γ-rays

19. Positive charge in an atom is:
a) Scattered all over the atom
b) Concentrated in the nucleus
c) Revolving around the nucleus
d) None is true

20. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at. No. of Cr=24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex:
a) 3dxy1, 3dyz1, 3dxz1
b) 3sxy1, 3dyz1, 3dz21
c) 3dx2-y21, 3dz21, 3dxz1
d) 3dxy1, 3dx2-y21, 3dyz1

Answers

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 

Solutions

2 (b)
Roentgen discovered X-rays.

3 (d)
Spins of an electron are ±1/2 in an orbital

4 (c)
No. of subshell= n; no. of orbitals= n².

5 (b)
No. of electrons in an orbital = 2
No. of orbitals in a subshell = 2l+1
∴ No. of electrons in an orbital = 2(2l+1)

6 (c)
Mesons are electrically neutral (π⁰) or charged (π^-, π⁺) particles having their mass 236 times of electron.

7 (c)
Mg^(2+)=[Ne] [Zero unpaired electrons]
Ti^(3+)=[Ar]3d¹[One unpaired electrons]
Fe^(2+)=[Ar]3d^5[Five unpaired electrons]
V^(3+)=[Ar]3d²[Two unpaired electrons]

8 (c)
According to Bohr’s atomic model, if energy is supplied to an electron it may jump from a lower energy level to higher energy level. Energy is absorbed in the form of quanta (or photon). ∆E=hv
Where, v is the frequency.
According to above postulate an electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit by the absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency.

9 (a)
Tritium is the isotope of hydrogen. Its composition is as follows :
1 electron, 1 proton and 2 neutrons

10 (a)
If m= +3 (maximum), then l=3 (maximum). Thus, maximum value of n= 4. Also no. of waves in an orbit = no. of orbit

11 (c)
For Lyman series,

12 (d)
The desired formulae to calculate nodes.

13 (a)

14 (a)
In p-orbitals electrons are present as

15 (c)
Rest all are evidence for wave nature.

16 (c)
Ground state of ₁₂Mg is 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s².

17 (a)

18 (c)

So, deuterium and an α-particles have identical value of e/m

19 (b)
All the protons carrying +ve charge are present in nucleus.

20 (a)
Cr³⁺:1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²3p⁶3d³.
The 3d_xy¹, 3d_xz¹, 3d_yz¹ has lower energy.

These were the 20 questions from this chapter. You can comment below to find more questions.

Hello Aspirants! In this article, we brought to you the multiple choice questions from class 11 Chemistry chapter 1. These questions will be helpful for your CBSE exam preparations, as well as competitive exams like JEE and NEET. Good Luck. 

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Questions 1-10

1. The weight of oxygen in one mole each of Fe₂O₃ and FeO is in the simple ratio of:
a) 3 : 2
b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1
d) 3 : 1

2. The equivalent weight of a bivalent metal is 37.2. The molecular weight of its chloride is
a) 412.2
b) 216
c) 145.4
d) 108.2

3. 0.0833 moles of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH₂O contains 1 g of hydrogen. The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
a) C₅H₁₀O₅
b) C₃H₄O₃
c) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
d) C₆ H₁₂O₆

4. The equivalent weight of Zn(OH)₂ in the following reaction is equal to its,
Zn(OH)₂ + HNO₃ ⟶ Zn(OH)(NO₃) + H₂O:
a) (Formula wt.)/1
b) (Formula wt.)/2
c) 2 × formula wt.
d) 3 × formula wt.

5. 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water. The mole fraction of NaCl is:
a) 0.1
b) 0.01
c) 0.2
d) 0.0196

6. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing
a) 2.16 g
b) 2.48 g
c) 2.64 g
d) 2.32 g

7. A solution contains Na₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃. 10 mL of the solution required 2.5 mL of 0.1 M H₂SO₄ for neutralization using phenolphthalein as an indicator. Methyl orange was then added when a further 2.5 mL of 0.2 MH₂SO₄ was required. The amount of Na₂CO₃ in 1 liter of the solution is:
a) 5.3 g and 4.2 g
b) 3.3 g and 6.2 g
c) 4.2 g and 5.3 g
d) 6.2 g and 3.3 g

8. The volume occupied by one molecule of water (density 1 g cm^-3) is:
a) 18 cm³
b) 22400 cm³
c) 6.023×10^-23 cm³
d) 3.0×10^-23 cm³

9. 510 mg of a liquid on vaporization in Victor Meyer’s apparatus displaces 67.2 cm³ of air at (STP). The molecular weight of the liquid is:
a) 130
b) 17
c) 170
d) 1700

10. What volume of 6M HCL should be added to 2M HCL to get 1L of 3M HCL?
a) 0.25 L
b) 1.00 L
c) 0.75 L
d) 2.50 L

Answers

1. d 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. a 

Solutions

Questions 11-20

11. The normality of one molar sodium carbonate solution is:
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 1.5

12. If H₂SO₄ ionises as H₂SO₄ + 2 H₂O → 2 H₃O⁺ + SO₄^2-, then total number of ions produced by 0.1M H₂SO₄ will be
a) 9.03×10²¹
b) 3.01×10²²
c) 6.02×10²²
d) 1.8×10²³

13. W₁ of an element combines with oxygen forming W₂ g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of the element is:
a) [W₁ / W₂ ]×8
b) [W₁/(W₂-W₁ )]×8
c) [(W₂-W₁)/W₁ ]×8
d) [W₁/(W₁-W₂ )]×8

14. A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH₄)₃PO₄ contains 6.36 moles of hydrogen atoms. The number of moles of oxygen atom in the sample is (atomic mass of N = 14.04, H = 1, P = 31, O = 16)
a) 0.265
b) 0.795
c) 2.12
d) 4.14

15. To neutralize 20 mL of M/ 10 NaOH, the volume of M/20 HCl needed is:
a) 10 mL
b) 30 mL
c) 40 mL
d) 20 mL

16. A, E, M, and n are the atomic weight, equivalent weight, molecular weight, and valence of an element. The correct relation is:
a) A = E×n
b) A=M/E
c) A=M/n
d) M=A×n

17. Which one of the following sets of units represents the smallest and largest amount of energy respectively?
a) J and erg
b) erg and cal
c) Cal and eV
d) eV and L-atm

18. The number of atoms present in a 0.635 g of Cu piece will be
a) 6.023×10^-23
b) 6.023×10²³
c) 6.023×10²²
d) 6.023×10²¹

19. What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
a) 89.6 L
b) 67.2 L
c) 44.8 L
d) 22.4 L

20. The numerical value of N/n (where N is the number of molecules in n moles of gas) is:
a) 8.314
b) 6.02 ×10²³
c) 1.602×10^-24
d) 1.66×10^-19

Answers

11. a 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. b 

Solutions

Questions 21-30

21. In the relationship molecular formula = empirical formula × n. The 'n' may have:
a) Any value
b) Zero value
c) Only positive integer value
d) None of the above

22. 10g CaCO₃on heating gives 5.6 g CaO and …. g CO₂.
a) 4.4
b) 5.6
c) 6.5
d) 4.2

23. Which of the following changes with an increase in temperature?
a) Molality
b) Weight fraction of solute
c) Fraction of solute present in water
d) Mole fraction

24. On combustion of 4 g of the methane, 10.46 kJ of heat is liberated. The heat of combustion of methane is
a) 83.68 kJ
b) 10.46 kJ
c) 41.84 kJ
d) 20.93 kJ

25. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)_x. Its VD is 70. The value of x must be:
a) 7
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

26. Choose the wrong statement.
a) 1 mole means 6.023×10²³ particles
b) Molar mass is the mass of one molecule
c) Molar mass is the mass of one mole of a substance
d) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams

27. The term standard solution is used for the solutions whose:
a) Normality is known
b) Molarity is known
c) Strength is known
d) All of these

28. The ratio of the mole fraction of a solute and a solvent in a binary solution is:
a) Ratio of their wt.
b) One
c) Ratio of their mole
d) Zero

29. If in a reaction HNO₃ is reduced to NO, the mass of HNO₃ absorbing one mole of electrons would be
a) 21.0 g
b) 36.5 g
c) 18.0 g
d) 31.5 g

30. At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weighs 60 g. The vapor density of the gas is:
a) 60
b) 120
c) 30
d) 240

Answers

21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. b 

Solutions

Questions 31-40

31. The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen gas is:
a) 6.02×10^11.5
b) 3.01×10²³
c) 3.01×10^11.5
d) 6.02×10²³

32. On analysis a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254 g of iodine (at. mass 127) and 80 g of oxygen (at. mass 16). What is the formula of the compound?
a) IO
b) I₂ O
c) I₂ O₃
d) I₂ O₅

33. The vapor density of a volatile chloride of a metal is 95 and the specific heat of the metal is 0.13 cal/g. The equivalent weight of the metal will be:
a) 6.0
b) 12.3
c) 18.6
d) 24.5

34. The equivalent weight of a certain trivalent element is 20. The molecular weight of its oxide is
a) 152
b) 56
c) 168
d) 68

35. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
a) 3200 cm³
b) 5600 cm³
c) 22400 cm³
d) 11200 cm³

36. Two elements X (at. Wt. 75) and Y (at. wt. 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8% ofX. The formula of the compound will be
a) XY
b) X₂ Y
c) XY₃
d) X₂ Y₃

37. The amount of oxalic acid (hydrated) required to prepare 500 mL of its 0.1 N solution is:
a) 0.315 g
b) 6.3 g
c) 3.15 g
d) 63.0 g

38. The equivalent weight of KMnO₄ for an acid solution is
a) 79
b) 52.16
c) 158
d) 31.6

39. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt solution using diphenylamine as an indicator. The number of moles of Mohr’s salt required per mole of dichromate is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

40. A mixture of CH₄,N₂ and O₂ is enclosed in a vessel of one litre capacity at 0°C. The ratio of particle pressures of gases is 1 : 4 : 2. Total pressure of the gaseous mixture is 2660 mm. The number of molecules of oxygen present in the vessel is
a) (6.02×10²³)/22.4
b) 6.02×10²³
c) 22.4×10²²
d) 1000

Answers

31. d 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. a 

Solutions

Questions 41-50

41. xg of Ag was dissolved in HNO₃ and the solution was treated with excess NaCl when 2.87 g of AgCl was precipitated. The value of x is
a) 1.08 g
b) 2.16 g
c) 2.70 g
d) 1.62 g

42. One mole electron means:
a) N electrons
b) 6.023 ×10²³electrons
c) 0.55 mg electrons
d) All of these

43. A signature, written in carbon pencil weighs 1 mg. What is the number of carbon atoms present in the signature?
a) 5.02×10²³
b) 5.02×10²⁰
c) 6.02×10²⁰
d) 0.502×10²⁰

44. The minimum quantity of H₂S needed to precipitate 63.5 g of Cu²⁺ will be nearly:
a) 63.5 g
b) 31.75 g
c) 34 g
d) 20 g

45. An unknown element forms an oxide. What will be the equivalent weight of the element if the oxygen content is 20% by weight?
a) 16
b) 32
c) 8
d) 64

46. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The molecular weight of cortisone is 360.4. what is the percentage of carbon in cortisone?
a) 59.9%
b) 75%
c) 69.98%
d) None of these

47. Which mode of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
a) Molality
b) Percent by weight
c) Mole fraction
d) All of these

48. An ion is reduced to the element when it absorbs 6×10²⁰ electrons. The number of the equivalent of ion is:
a) 0.1
b) 0.01
c) 0.001
d) 0.0001

49. The volume of 0.1 MH₂ SO₄ required to neutralize 30 mL of 2.0 M NaOH is:
a) 100 mL
b) 300 mL
c) 400 mL
d) 200 mL

50. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because
a) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
b) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
c) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
d) Oxygen atomic weight is variable

Answers

41. b 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. c 

Solutions

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In this article, we have posted 50 questions from equilibrium chapter from chemistry. These questions will be your ultimate source for your revision. We have also provided answer key and detailed solution so that there is no doubt left in your mind. Good Luck!

Equilibrium MCQ Questions for NEET

Question 1-25

1. Which may be added to one litre of water to act as a buffer?
a) One mole of HC₂H₃O₂ and one mole of HCl
b) One mole of NH₄OH and one mole of NaOH
c) One mole of NH₄Cl and one mole of HCl
d) One mole of HC₂H₃O₂ and 0.5 mole of NaOH

2. An aqueous solution of 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl is
a) not a buffer but pH < 7
b) not a buffer but pH > 7
c) a buffer with pH < 7
d) a buffer with pH > 7

3. In the following reversible reaction,
2 SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2 SO₃ + Q cal
Most suitable condition for the higher production of SO₃ is
a) Low temperature and high pressure
b) Low temperature and low pressure
c) High temperature and high pressure
d) High temperature and low pressure

4. Select the pK_a value of the strongest acid from the following
a) 1.0
b) 3.0
c) 2.0
d) 4.5

5. The pH of a 0.1 M solution of NH₄OH (having K_b=1.0×10^-5) is equal to
a) 10
b) 6
c) 11
d) 12

6. In the reaction, H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) ⇌ 2 HCl(g)
a) K_p ≠ K_c
b) K_p = K_c
c) K_p > K_c
d) K_p &It; k_c

7. The total number of different kind of buffers obtained during the titration of H₃ PO₄ with NaOH are:
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) Zero

8. Which will not affect the degree of ionisation?
a) Temperature
b) Concentration
c) Type of solvent
d) Current

9. Which of the following has highest pH?
a) M/4 KOH
b) M/4 NaOH
c) M/4 NH₄OH
d) M/4 Ca(OH)₂

10. Solubility product constant [K_sp] of salts of types MX, MX₂ and M₃ X at temperature ‘T’ are 4.0×10^-8, 3.2×10^-14 and 2.7×10^-15respectively. Solubilities (mol, dm^-3) of the salts at temperature ‘T’ are in the order
a) MX>MX₂>M₃ X
b) M₃ X>MX₂>MX
c) MX₂>M₃ X>MX
d) MX>M₃ X>MX₂

11. Which of the following base is weakest?
a) NH₄OH; K_b = 1.6×10^-6
b) C₆ H₅ NH₂; K_b = 3.8×10^-10
c) C₂H₅NH₂; K_b = 5.6×10^-4
d) C₉H₇N; K_b = 6.3×10^-10

12. One litre of water contains 10^-7 mole H⁺ ions. Degree of ionisation of water is:
a) 1.8×10^-7%
b) 1.8×10^-9%
c) 3.6×10^-7%
d) 3.6×10^-9%

13. A precipitate is formed when
a) The ionic product is nearly equal to the solubility product
b) A solution becomes saturated
c) The ionic product exceeds the solubility product
d) The ionic product is less than solubility product

14. The precipitation is noticed when an aqueous solution of HCl is added to an aqueous solution of:
a) NaNO₂
b) Ba(NO₃)₂
c) ZnSO₄
d) HgNO₃

15. Which of the following is not a Lewis base?
a) NH₃
b) H₂O
c) AlCl₃
d) None of these

16. Solubility of BaF₂ in a solution of Ba(NO₃)₂ will be represented by the concentration term
a) [Ba²⁺]
b) [F^-]
c) 1/2 [F^-]
d) 2[NO₃^-]

17. Which of the following is a buffer?
a) NaOH + CH₃COOH
b) NaOH + Na₂SO₄
c) K₂SO₄ + H₂SO₄
d) NH₄OH + NaOH

18. For the following three reactions I, II and III, equilibrium constants are given
CO(g) + H₂ O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g); K₁
CH₄(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3 H₂(g); K₂
CH₄(g) + 2 H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + 4 H₂(g); K₃
Which of the following relations is correct?
a) K₁ √(K₂) = K₃
b) K₂ K₃ = K₁
c) K₃ = K₁ K₂
d) K₃ K₂³ = K₁²

19. 0.1 mole of N₂ O₄ (g) was sealed in a tube under one atmospheric conditions at 25℃. Calculate the number of moles of NO₂ (g) present, if the equilibrium N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2 NO₂(g) (K_p=0.14) is reached after some time
a) 0.036
b) 36.00
c) 360.0
d) 3.600

20. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.1 M ammonia and 1.0 M ammonium chloride. At 298 K, the pK_b of NH₄OH is 5.0.The pH of the buffer is
a) 10.0
b) 9.0
c) 6.0
d) 8.0

21. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?
a) (CH₃)₃N
b) (CH₃)₃B
c) (CH₃)₂O
d) (CH₃)₃P

22. Which among the following is an electron deficient compound?
a) NF₃
b) PF₃
c) BF₃
d) AsF₃

23. Identify the correct order of acidic strength of CO₂, CuO, CaO, H₂O:
a) CaO < CuO < H₂O < CO₂
b) H₂O < CuO < CaO < H₂O
c) CaO < H₂O < CuO < CO₂
d) H₂O < CO₂ < CaO < CuO

24. Which of the following is a strong acid?
a) HClO₄
b) HBrO₄
c) HIO₄
d) HNO₃

25. According to Arrhenius concept the, strength of an acid depends on:
a) Hydrolysis
b) Concentration of acid
c) H⁺ ions furnished by acid
d) Number of mole of base used for neutralization

Answers

1. d  2. a  3. a  4. a  5. c  6. b  7. a  8. d  9. d  10. d  11. b  12. a  13. c  14. d  15. c  16. c  17. a  18. c  19. a  20. d  21. b  22. c  23. a  24. a  25. c  

Solutions

1 (d)

The solution contains weak acid 0.5 Mol + its conjugate base 0.5 Mol and thus, acts as buffer.

2 (a)
Aqueous solution of 1M NaCl and 1M HCl is not a buffer but pH < 7.

3 (a)
Reaction is exothermic and volume is decreasing from left to right, so for higher production of SO₃, there should be low temperature and high pressure

4 (a)
The acid is called strong acid when it ionise up to great extent 
i.e., if its K_a value is large.
We know that pK_a=log⁡ (1/K_a)

5 (c)

6 (b)
H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) ⇌ 2 HCl(g)
We know that,
K_p = K_c.(RT)^(∆n_g)
∆n_g = no. of moles of gaseous products – no.  of moles of gaseous reactants
          = 2-2=0
K_p = K_c.(RT)⁰
K_p = K_c

7 (a)
NaH₂PO₄ + H₃PO₄; NaH₂PO₄ + Na₂HPO₄; Na₂HPO₄ + Na₃PO₄.

9 (d)

solution will give highest concentration of [OH^-]. Hence, it has highest pH.

10 (d)

Thus, solubility order= MX > M₃X > MX₂

11 (b)
Basic strength ∝ dissociation constant of base (K_b).
So, smaller the value of K_b weaker will be the base.
The weakest base will have smallest value of K_b.
∵ C₆H₅NH₂(aniline)  has smallest value of K_b .
∴ It is weakest base.

12 (a)
α=    (number of mole dissociated)/(total mole present)
         = 10^-7/(1000/18)= 1.8×10^-9= 1.8×10^-7%
Total mole of H₂O in 1 litre= 1000/18

13 (c)
A precipitate is formed when the ionic product exceeds the solubility product.
i.e., [A⁺][B^-] > K_sp

14 (d)
2 HgNO₃ + 2 HCl ⟶ Hg₂Cl₂ + 2 HNO₃;
Hg₂Cl₂ in insoluble in water.

15 (c)
Lewis bases are electrons rich compounds.
(i) NH₃ and H₂O are Lewis bases because they have lone pair of electron.
(ii)AlCl₃ is Lewis acid because it can accept electrons.

16 (c)
Ba(NO₃)₂ gives NO₃^-, Ba²⁺ ions, hence Ba²⁺ ion increases. To keep K_sp constant, [F^-] decreases. Thus, it is represented as 1/2 [F^-]

18 (c)
As equation ‘III’ is obtained on adding equation ‘I’ and equation ‘II’, so K₃ = K₁.K₂.

19 (a)

Thus, [NO₂ ]=2×0.018=0.036 mol

20 (d)
From Henderson equation

pH+pOH=14

pOH= 6
pH + pOH= 14
pH + 6= 14
pH= 14-6= 8

21 (b)
It has sextet of electron and can accept lone pair of electron.

22 (c)
BF₃ is electron deficient compound because B has six electrons in outermost orbit. It has incomplete octet. So, it is an electron deficient molecule.

23 (a)
Metal oxides are basic, non-metal oxides are acidic. CaO is more basic than CuO. Water (H₂O) is amphoteric.

24 (a)
The acidic character of oxy-acids decreases down the group and increases along the period. Also, higher ox.no. of non-metal in oxy-acid shows more acidic nature.

25 (c)
Follow Arrhenius concept.

Question 1-25

26. H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2 HI
In the above equilibrium system, if the concentration of the reactants at 25℃ is increased, the value of K_c will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains the same
d) Depends on the nature of the reactants

27. 0.04 g of pure NaOH is dissolved in 10 litre of distilled water. The pH of the solution is:
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

28. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction, P₄(s) + 5 O₂(g) ⇌ P₄O₁₀(s)?
a) K_c = 1/[O₂]⁵
b) K_c = [O₂]⁵
c) K_c = ([P₄O₁₀]) / (5[P₄][O₂])
d) K_c = ([P₄O₁₀]) / ([P₄][O₂]⁵)

29. When 10^-8 mole of HCl is dissolved in one litre of water, the pH of the solution will be:
a) 8
b) 7
c) Above 8
d) Below 7

30. A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH=3.58 that efficiently resists a change in pH yet contains only small conc. of the buffering agents. Which one of the following weak acid together with its sodium salt would be best to use?
a) m-chloro benzoic acid (pK_a = 3.98)
b) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pK_a = 4.41)
c) 2,5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pK_a = 2.97)
d) Acetoacetic acid (pK_a = 3.58)

31. The pH of 10^-8 M HCl solution is
a) 8
b) More than 8
c) Between 6 and 7
d) Slightly more than 7

32. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X^- and HX. The K_a for HX is 10. The pH of the buffer is:
a) 7
b) 8
c) 11
d) 14

33. 100 mL of 0.01 M solution of NaOH is diluted to 1 dm³. What is the pH of the diluted solution?
a) 12
b) 11
c) 2
d) 3

34. Which of the following salt does not get hydrolysed in water?
a) KClO₄
b) NH₄ Cl
c) CH₃COONa
d) None of these

35. A higher value for equilibrium constant, K shows that:
a) The reaction has gone to near completion towards right
b) The reaction has not yet started
c) The reaction has gone to near completion towards left
d) None of the above

36. Which one is least basic?
a) CH₃NH₂
b) NH₃
c) C₂H₅NH₂
d) C₆H₅NH₂

37. The aqueous solution of disodium hydrogen phosphate is:
a) Acidic
b) Neutral
c) Basic
d) None of these

38. 3.2 moles of hydrogen iodide were heated in a sealed bulb at 444℃ till the equilibrium state was reached. Its degree of dissociation at this temperature was found to be 22%. The number of moles of hydrogen iodide present at equilibrium are
a) 1.876
b) 2.496
c) 3.235
d) 4.126

39. In the reactions, PCl₅  ⇌ PCl₃  + Cl₂, the amounts of PCl₅, PCl₃ and Cl₂ at equilibrium are 2 mole each and the total pressure is 3 am. The equilibrium constant K_p is:
a) 1.0 atm
b) 2.0 atm
c) 3.0 atm
d) 6.0 atm

40. Which of the following is correct for the reaction?
N₂(g) + 3 H₂(g) ⇌ 2 NH₃(g)
a) K_p = K_c
b) K_p&It;k_c
c) K_p>K_c
d) Pressure is required to predict the correlation

41. The graph relates ln K_eq vs 1/T for a reaction. The reaction must be:

a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) ∆H is negligible
d) Highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature

42. 0.1 millimole of CdSO₄ are present in 10 mL acid solution of 0.08 N HCl. Now H₂S is passed to precipitate all the Cd²⁺ ions. The pH of the solution after filtering off precipitate, boiling of H₂S and making the solution 100 mL by adding H₂ O is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

43. Calculate the pH of a solution in which hydrogen ion concentration is 0.005 g-equi/L?
a) 2.3
b) 2.8
c) 2.9
d) 2.6

44. In 1L saturated solution of AgCl [K_sp (AgCl)1.6 10^10], 0.1 mole of CuCl [K_sp (CuCl) 1.0 10⁶] is added. The resultant concentration of Ag in the solution is 1.6 10^x. The value of 'x' is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

45. Eight mole of a gas AB₃ attain equilibrium in a closed container of volume 1 dm³ as, 2 AB₃ ⇌ A₂ (g) + 3 B₂(g). If at equilibrium 2 mole of A₂ are present then, equilibrium constant is :
a) 72 mol² L^-2
b) 36 mol² L^-2
c) 3 mol² L^-2
d) 27 mol² L^-2

46. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
a) MnS (K_sp=8 × 10^-37)
b) ZnS (K_sp=7 × 10^-16)
c) Bi₂S₃ (K_sp=1 × 10^-70)
d) Ag₂S (K_sp=6 × 10^-51)

47. At a given temperature the K_c for the reaction, PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) is 2.4 ×10^-3. At the same temperature, the K_c for the reaction
PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) ⇌ PCl₅(g) is:
a) 2.4 ×10^-3
b) -2.4 × 10^-3
c) 4.2 ×10^-2
d) 4.8 ×10^-2

48. If the solubility of lithium sodium hexafluoroaluminate, Li₃Na₃ (AlF₆)₂ is 'a^' mol/litre, its solubility product is equal to:
a) a²
b) 12a²
c) 18a³
d) 2916a^8

49. Approximate relationship between dissociation constant of water (K) and ionic product of water (K_w) is
a) K_w = K
b) K_w = 55.6 × K
c) K_w = 18 × K
d) K_w = 14 × K

50. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 N CH₃COOH is (dissociation constant =1×10^-5)
a) 10^-5
b) 10^-4
c) 10^-3
d) 10^-2

Answers

26. c  27. b  28. a  29. d  30. d  31. c  32. b  33. b  34. a  35. a  36. d  37. c  38. b  39. a  40. b  41. a  42. a  43. a  44. c  45. d  46. b  47. c  48. d  49. b  50. d    

Solutions

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In this article, we will be sharing with you 30 most probable questions from class 11 chapter 4 "Chemical Bonding" for the upcoming NEET exam. We have also provided answer key to match your answers and detailed explanation to solve all your doubts. 

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Questions

1. The hybrid state of S in SO₃ is similar to that of
a) C in C₂H₂
b) C in C₂H₄
c) C in CH₄
d) C in CO₂

2. The hydration energy of Mg²⁺ is larger than that of:
a) Al³⁺
b) Na⁺
c) Be²⁺
d) None of these

3. Number of lone pair (s) in XeOF₄ is/are
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

4. Van der Waals’ forces between molecules depend upon:
a) Number of electrons
b) Charge on nucleus
c) Radius of atoms
d) All of these

5. XeF₆ is:
a) Octahedral
b) Pentagonal pyramidal
c) Planar
d) tetrahedral

6. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO⁺ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?
a) Bond length in NO⁺ is greater than in NO
b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO⁺
c) Bond length in NO⁺ is equal to than in NO
d) Bond length is unpredictable

7. An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to combine chemically with the atom whose atomic number is:
a) 11
b) 16
c) 18
d) 10

8. Which has the largest distance between the carbon hydrogen atom?
a) Ethane
b) Ethene
c) Ethyne
d) Benzene

9. Length of hydrogen bond ranges from 2.5Å to:
a) 3.0 Å
b) 2.75 Å
c) 2.6 Å
d) 3.2 Å

10. If H-X bond length is 2.00 Å and H-X bond has dipole moment 5.12×10^-30 C-m,
the percentage of ionic character in the molecule will be
a) 10%
b) 16%
c) 18%
d) 20%

11. Which molecule is planar?
a) NH₃
b) CH₄
c) C₂H₄
d) SiCl₄

12. From the molecular orbital theory, one can show that the bond order in F₂ molecule as
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

13. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other until they unite to form one block. Which one of the following forces dominates for holding them together?
a) Dipole-dipole interaction
b) Van der Waals’ forces
c) Hydrogen bond formation
d) Covalent attraction

14. Maximum number of covalent bonds between two like atoms can be:
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) One

15. When sodium and chlorine react, energy is:
a) Released and ionic bond is formed
b) Released and covalent bond is formed
c) Absorbed and covalent bond is formed
d) Absorbed and ionic bond is formed

16. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds is a H₂ O molecule can participate is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

17. The element having lowest ionization energy among the following is:
a) 1s², 2s², 2p³
b) 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s¹
c) 1s², 2s², 2p⁶
d) 1s², 2s², 2p⁵

18. Bond energies in NO, NO⁺ and NO^- are such as
a) NO^->NO>NO⁺
b) NO>NO^->NO⁺
c) NO⁺>NO>NO^-
d) NO⁺>NO^->NO

19. Two type FXF angles are present in which of the following molecules? (X=S, Xe, C)
a) SF₄
b) XeF₄
c) SF₆
d) CF₄

20. The bond angle between two hybrid orbitalsis 105°. The percentage of s-character of hybrid orbital is between
a) 50-55%
b) 9-12%
c) 22-23%
d) 11-12%

21. Which is electron deficient compound?
a) C₂H₄
b) B₂H₆
c) C₂H₆
d) NaBH₄

22. CCl₄ is insoluble in water because:
a) CCl₄ is non-polar and water is polar
b) Water is non-polar and CCl₄ is polar
c) Water and CCl₄ both are polar
d) None of the above

23. Which of the following is not correct regarding the properties of ionic compounds?
a) Ionic compounds have high metling and boiling points
b) Their reaction velocity in aqueous medium is very high
c) Ionic compounds in their molten and aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity
d) They are highly soluble in polar solvents

24. The number of sigma and pi (π) bonds present in benzene respectively are
a) 12, 6
b) 6, 6
c) 6, 12
d) 12, 3

25. Which of the following is not tetrahedral?
a) BF₄^-
b) NH₄⁺
c) CO₃^2-
d) SO₄^2-

26. In PCl₅ molecule, P is:
a) sp³-hybridized
b) dsp²-hybridized
c) ds³p-hybridized
d) sp³d-hybridized

27. The bond angle and % of d-character in SF₆ are
a) 120°, 20%
b) 90°, 33%
c) 109°, 25%
d) 90°, 25%

28. Linear combination of two hybridized orbitals, belonging to two atoms and each having one electron leads to:
a) Sigma-bond
b) Double bond
c) Coordinate covalent bond
d) Pi-bond

29. In allene structure, three carbon atoms are joined by:
a) Three σ-and three π-bonds
b) Two σ- and one π-bond
c) Two σ-and two π-bonds
d) Three π-bonds only

30. Geometry of SiO₄^4- anion is
a) Tetrahedral
b) Trigonal
c) Trihedral
d) Pentagonal

Answers

1. b	2. b	3. b	4. d	5. b
6. b	7. b	8. a	9. b	10. b
11. c	12. b	13. c	14. a	15. a
16. d	17. b	18. c	19. a	20. c
21. b	22. a	23. c	24. d	25. c
26. d	27. b	28. a	29. c	30. a

Solutions

1 (b)
Molecule Hybridization

2 (b)
Mg²⁺ is smaller than Na⁺ and thus, smaller is cation more is hydration energy.

3 (b)
Number of lone pair in XeOF₄ is one (1). The structure of XeOF₄ is given as follows :

One π-bond so remaining six electron pairs form an octahedron with one position occupied by a lone pair.

4 (d)
These are the factors on which van der Waals’ forces depend.

5 (b)
It has sp³ d³-hybridization with one lone pair on Xe.

6 (b)
Bond order ∝ 1/(Bond length)
BO of NO < BO of NO⁺
∴ Bond length of NO is greater than the bond length of NO⁺.

7 (b)
Element with atomic number 20 is metal (Ca); it will combine with non-metal.

8 (a)
A decrease in s-character increases bond length.

10 (b)

11 (c)
C₂ H₄ involves sp²-hybridization on carbon atoms.

12 (b)
According to molecular orbital theory.

15 (a)
Bond formation is always exothermic. Compounds of sodium are ionic.

16 (d)
In case of water, five water molecules are attached together through four hydrogen bonding

17 (b)
Removal of electron is easier in the order of shell 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

18 (c)
Bond order of NO⁺, NO and NO^- are 3, 2.5 and 2 respectively.
Bond energy ∝ bond order.

19 (a)
FXF angles of two types are present in sp³ d hybrid orbitals. Since, SF₄ shows sp³ d hybridisation as follows, therefore, it exhibits two different FXF angles. 

20 (c)
s-character ∝ bond angle
For 25% s-character (as in sp³hybrid orbital), bond angle is 109.5°, for 33.3% s character (as in sp² hybrid orbital), bond angle is 120° and for 50% s character (as in sp hybrid orbital ), bond angle is 180°.
Similarly, when the bond angle decreases below 1.9.5°,thes-character will decrease accordingly
Decreasing in angle =120°-109.5°=10.5°
∴ Decrease in s-character =33.3-25=8.3
Actual decrease in bond angle =109.5°-105°=4.5°
∴ Expected decrease in s-character
=8.3/10.5×4.5=3.56%
Thus, the s-character should decrease by about 3.56%, ie, s-character =25-3.56=21.44%

21 (b)
B has only six electron in B₂H₆.

22 (a)
Like gets dissolved in like. It is theory.

23 (c)
Ionic compounds are good conductor of electricity in molten or in solution state. However, they are bad-conductor in solid state.

24 (d)
In benzene 12σ and 3π bonds are present. The structure of benzene is 

25 (c)
In CO₃^2- ion the C-atom undergoes sp²-hybridisation. It has triangular planar structure. While BF₄^-, NH₄⁺ and SO₄^2-have tetrahedral structure.

26 (d)
PCl₅ has trigonal bipyramid geometry.

27 (b)
SF₆ has octahedral geometry, sp³d² hybridisation and bond angle is 90°


=33%
So, SF₆ are bond angle = 90°
andd-character = 33%.

28 (a)
Head on overlapping give rise to σ-bond formation.

29 (c)
Alleneis H₂C=C=CH₂.

30 (a)
Silicate ion (SiO₄^4-) is the basic structural unit of silicates. Silicates are metal derivatives of silicic acid. 

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Hello NEET aspirants. In this article we brought to you the MCQ questions from class 12 chapter named as "Haloalkanes and Haloarenes". Answer key and detailed solutions are also provided in this article so that you don't have any doubts left for any of the questions. Good Luck! 

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Questions

1. Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with I₂ and NaOH is
a) CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₂CH₃
b) C₆H₅CH₂CH₂OH
c) H₃C-CH(CH₃)-CH₂OH
d) PhCHOHCH₃

2. Vicinal and geminal dihalides can be distinguished by:
a) KOH (aq.)
b) KOH (alc.)
c) Zn dust
d) None of these

3. An alkyl halide may be converted into an alcohol by:
a) Addition
b) Substitution
c) Dehydrohalogenation
d) Elimination

4. Dehydrohalogenation in haloalkanes produces:
a) A single bond
b) A double bond
c) A triple bond
d) Fragmentation

5. Chlorination of CS₂ gives:
a) CCl₄
b) CS₂Cl₂
c) CH₄
d) CHCl₃

6. Methylene chloride on hydrolysis yields:
a) HCHO
b) CH₃CHO
c) CHCl₃
d) CH₃COCl

7. The greater the ionic character of the carbon metal bond:
a) The more reactive is the organometallic compound
b) The less reactive is the organometallic compound
c) Both are correct
d) None of the above is correct

8. For the reaction,
C₂H₅OH + HX  C₂H₅X, the order of reactivity is:

a) HI > HCl > HBr
b) HI > HBr > HCl
c) HCl > HBr > HI
d) HBr > HI > HCl

9. The order of reactivities of methyl halides in the formation of Grignard reagent is
a) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl
b) CH₃Cl > CH₃Br > CH₃I
c) CH₃Br > CH₃Cl > CH₃I
d) CH₃Br > CH₃I > CH₃Cl

10. The antiseptic character of iodoform is due to:
a) Its poisonous nature
b) Unpleasant smell
c) Liberation of free iodine
d) None of the above

11. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with sodium metal in dry ether, 2-methyl propane was obtained. The alkyl halides are
a) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane
b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
c) Chloromethane and chloroethane
d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane

12. The IUPAC name of the compound, (CH₃)₂CHCH₂CH₂Br is:
a) 2-methyl-3-bromopropane
b) 1-bromopentane
c) 2-methyl-4-bromobutane
d) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

13. The given reaction is an example of,
C₂H₅Br + KCN_(aq.) ⟶ C₂H₅CN + KBr
a) Elimination
b) Nucleophilic substitution
c) Electrophilic substitution
d) Redox change

14. Which one of the following compound reacts with chlorobenzene to produce DDT?
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Nitrobenzene
c) m-chloroacetaldehyde
d) Trichloroacetaldehyde

15. Preparation of alkyl halides in laboratory is least preferred by:
a) Halide exchange
b) Direct halogenation of alkanes
c) Treatment of alcohols
d) Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes

16. Which one of the following pairs is the strongest pesticide?
a) Chloroform and benzene hexachloride
b) DDT and 666
c) 666 and ether
d) isocyanides and alcohol

17. Iodoform gives a precipitate with AgNO₃ on heating but chloroform does not because:
a) Iodoform is ionic
b) Chloroform is covalent
c) C—I bond in iodoform is weak and C—Cl bond in chloroform is strong
d) None of the above

18. Which reagent is useful in increasing the carbon chain of an alkyl halide?
a) HCN
b) KCN
c) NH₄CN
d) AgCN

19. Chloroform on reaction with conc. HNO₃ gives an insecticide and war gas known as:
a) Chloropicrin
b) Nitromethane
c) Picric acid
d) Acetylene

20. Aryl halides are less reactive towards electrophiles than alkyl halides due to:
a) Resonance
b) Stability of carbonium ions
c) High boiling point
d) None of the above

21. Carbon tetrachloride reacts with steam at 500℃ to give:
a) COCl₂
b) CHCl₃
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

22. Chloroform on reaction with acetone yields:
a) Insecticide
b) Hypnotic agent
c) Analgesic
d) Isocyanide

23. In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide reacts with
a) Sodium in ether
b) Sodium in dry ether
c) Sodium only
d) Alkyl halide in ether

24. When iodoform is heated with silver powder it forms:
a) Acetylene
b) Ethylene
c) Methane
d) Ethane

25. 1,3-dibromopropane reacts with metallic zinc to form:
a) Propene
b) Cyclopropane
c) Propane
d) Hexane

Answers

1. d	2. a	3. b	4. b	5. a
6. a	7. a	8. b	9. a	10. c
11. a	12. d	13. b	14. d	15. b
16. b	17. c	18. b	19. a	20. a
21. a	22. b	23. b	24. a	25. b

Explanation

1 (d) For positive iodoform test, alcohol molecule must have

2 (a)

8 (b)
HI reacts with C₂H₅OH even in absence of ZnX₂. Larger is bond length, more is reactivity.

9 (a)
Among alkyl halides, iodides are least stable, hence these form Grignard reagent easily. Hence, the correct order of reactivity in formation of Grignard reagent is CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl

10 (c)
The I₂ has antiseptic nature.

11 (a)
This is Wurtz reaction. 2-chloropropane and chloromethane reacts in presence of dry ether t form 2-methyl propane.

13 (b)
Br is replaced by a nucleophileCN^-.

15 (b)
A mixture of halides is formed.

16 (b)
DDT and 666 (C₆H₆Cl₆ or benzene hexachloride) is the pair of strongest pesticides.

17 (c)
Thus, decomposition of CHI₃ occurs.

18 (b)
CH₃X + KCN ⟶ CH₃CN 

19 (a)
CHCl₃ + HNO₃ ⟶ CCl₃∙NO₂ + H₂O∙CCl₃∙NO₂ is called chloropicrin. 

20 (a)
Aryl halides show resonance in their structure. 

21 (a)
CCl₄ + H₂O(v) ⟶ COCl₂ + 2 HCl 

23 (b)
In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide react with sodium in dry ether to produce alkane having double number of carbon atoms as in alkyl halide. 

24 (a)
CH₃I + 6 Ag + I₃HC ⟶ C₂H₂ + 6 AgX 

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In this article, we will share with you 20 MCQ questions from class 12 chemistry chapter 09 i.e. Coordination Compounds. Answer Key and detailed solutions of these questions is also given in this article so that there is no confusion left. Good Luck!

Questions

1. The IUPAC name of Na₃[Co(ONO)₆] is:
a) Sodium cobaltinitrite
b) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate(III)
c) Sodium hexanitrocobalt(III)
d) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate(II)

2. CuSO₄ decolourises on addition of KCN, the product is:
a) Cu(CN)₄^2-
b) [Cu(CN)₄]^3-
c) Cu(CN)₂
d) CuCN

3. Exchange of coordination group by a water molecule in complex molecule results in:
a) Ionization isomerism
b) Ligand isomerism
c) Hydration isomerism
d) Geometrical isomerism

4. The type of isomerism found in urea molecule is
a) Chain
b) Position
c) Tautomerism
d) None of these

5. The IUPAC name of the compound is

a) Butane-2-aldehyde
b) 2-methyl butanal
c) 2-ethyl propanal
d) None of the above

6. Anisol is a product obtained from phenol by the reaction known as:
a) Coupling
b) Etherification
c) Oxidation
d) Esterification

7. Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature?
a) [Fe(CN)₆]^3-
b) [NiCl₄]^2-
c) [Ni(CO)₄]
d) [MnCl₄]^2-

8. Which is the strongest field ligand?
a) CN^-
b) NO₂^-
c) NH₃
d) en

9. Nitrobenzene on reduction with Zn and aq. NH₄Cl gives:
a) Aniline
b) Nitrosobenzene
c) N-phenyl hydroxylamine
d) Hydrazobenzene

10. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃ )₅ONO]²⁺ ion is
a) Pentaamminenitrito cobalt (IV) ion
b) Pentaammine nitro cobalt (III) ion
c) Pentaamminenitrito cobalt (III) ion
d) Pentaammine nitro cobalt (IV) ion

11. The compound which does not show paramagnetism is
a) NO₂
b) NO
c) [Ag(NH₃ )₂ ]Cl
d) [Cu(NH₃ )₄ Cl₂ ]

12. Which of the following is expected to undergo nitration more easily and readily to furnish the corresponding nitro derivatives employing the usual nitrating mixture?
a) C₆H₆
b) C₆H₅NO₂
c) C₆H₅CH₃
d) C₆H₅∙CCl₃

13. The number of unpaired electrons calculated in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and [CoF₆]^3- are
a) 4 and 4
b) 0 and 2
c) 2 and 4
d) 0 and 4

14. The IUPAC name of

a) 4-hydroxy amino benzene carboxylic acid
b) 4-(N-hydroxy) imino benzene carboxylic acid
c) 4-hydroxy imino cyclohexanoic acid
d) 4-(N-hydroxy) imino cyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

15. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₂[Zn(OH)₄] is
a) Potassium tetrahydroxozine (II)
b) Dipotassiumtetrahydroxo(II)
c) Potassium tetrahydroxozincate (II)
d) Potassium tetrahydroxozincate (III)

16. Arrange in order of decreasing trend towards S_E reactions,
I. Chlorobenzene,
II. Benzene,
III. Anilium chloride,
IV. Toluene
a) II>I>III>IV
b) III>I>II>IV
c) IV>II<I>III
d) I>II>III>IV

17. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains:
a) Mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes
b) Mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
c) Mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes
d) Mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines

18. A positive carbylamine test is given by:
a) N,N-dimethylaniline
b) 2,4-dimethylaniline
c) N-methyl-o-methylaniline
d) p-methyl benzylamine

19. CN^- is strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that
a) It carries negative charge
b) It is a pseudohalide
c) It can accept electrons from metal species
d) It forms high spin complexes with metal species.

20. Which of the following is not true for ligand metal complex?
a) Highly charged ligand forms strong bond
b) Greater the ionization potential of central metal, the stronger is the bond
c) Larger the permanent dipole moment of ligand, the more stable is the bond
d) Larger the ligand, the more stable is the metal-ligand bond

Answer Key

1. b	2. b	3. c	4. c	5. b
6. b	7. c	8. a	9. c	10. b
11. c	12. c	13. d	14. d	15. c
16. c	17. b	18. d	19. b	20. b

Solutions

1 (b)
Follow IUPAC rules.

2 (b)
2CuSO₄+10KCN ⟶2K₃ Cu(CN)₄+(CN)₂+2K₂ SO₄

3 (c)
Follow definition of hydration isomerism.

4 (c)
Urea, NH₂-CO-NH₂; shows tautomerism as OH-NH₂-C=NH

6 (b)
C₆H₅ONa + RX ⟶ C₆H₅OR (Anisole)

7 (c)

8 (a)
CN^- is strongest field ligand. The spectrochemical series order is:
I^-<Br^-<Cl^-<F^-<[C₂O₄]^2-<H₂O<py <NH₃<en<NO₂^-<CN^-<CO

10 (b)
[Co(NH₃)₅ONO]²⁺
Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion.

11 (c)
In [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl, Ag⁺ contains d¹⁰ configuration. As others contain unpaired electrons.

12 (c)
CH₃ gp., an o-and p-directing group attached in nucleus activates the ring for S_E reactions. The presence of m-directing groups in benzene nucleous simply decreases electron density at o- and p-, whereas no change in electron density at m-position is noticed. 

On the contrary o-and p-directing groups in nucleus increases the electron density at o- and p-position.
Thus, presence of o- and p-directing groups provide seats for S_Ereactions or activates the ring, whereas presence of m-directing groups does not activate the ring and thus, deactivate the ring for S_E reactions

13 (d)
In both [Co(NH₃ )₆ ]³⁺ and [CoF₆ ]³⁺,Co is present as Co³⁺.
Thus, the electronic configuration of Co is
27Co=[Ar] 3d⁷,4s²
27Co3+=[Ar]3d⁶,4s⁰
In case of [Co(NH₃ )₆ ]³⁺,NH₃ is a strong field ligand, so pairing of electrons in 3d-orbital takes place.
27Co3+=[Ar]3d⁶,4s⁰

In [CoF₆ ]³⁺,F is a weak field ligand, thus doesn’t cause pairing.
Hence, 27Co3+=[Ar]3d⁶,4s⁰

18 (d)
It is a test for primary amines. No doubt 2,4-dimethylaniline is also primary amine but it does not give test due to steric hindrance.

19 (b)
CN^-is strong field ligand because it is an example of pseudohalide. Pseudohalide ions are stronger coordinating ligands and they have the ability to form σ bond and π-bond.

20 (b)
Higher the charge and smaller the size of ligand, more stable is the complex formed

For any questions, querries or suggestions, comment below. 

If you are preparing for NEET exam, this article will be a good help for you. This article contains mcq questions, answer keys and detailed solutions from class 11 chemistry chapter 6. Chemical Thermodynamics MCQs for NEET Exam. 

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links: 

• Biology MCQ Questions
• Chemistry MCQ Questions
• Physics MCQ Questions
• Mathematics MCQ Questions

Questions

Q1. Standard enthalpy of vaporization ∆_vap. H^⊝ for water at 100℃ is 40.66 kJ mol^-1. The internal energy of vapourisation of water at 100℃ (in kJ mol^-1) is:
a) +43.76
b) +40.66
c) +37.56
d) -43.76

Q2. The factor (∂Q/∂T)_P - (∂Q/∂T)_V is equal to :
a) 𝛾
b) R
c) R/M
d) ∆nRT

Q3. Heat of combustion of a substance:
a) Is always positive
b) Is always negative
c) Is equal to heat of formation
d) Nothing can be said without reaction

Q4. The heat of formations of CO(g) and CO_2 (g) are -26.4 kcal and -94.0 kcal respectively. The heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be
a) -67.6 kcal
b) 36.5 kcal
c) -36.5 kcal
d) -46.5 kcal

Q5. Which reaction either endothermic or exothermic characteristics has the greater chance of occurring spontaneously?
a) One in which entropy change is positive
b) One is which entropy change is negative
c) One in which Gibbs energy change is negative
d) One in which equilibrium has been established

Q6. Net work done by the system in a cyclic process is equal to:
a) Zero
b) ∆U
c) ∆H
d) q

Q7. A thermodynamic quantity is that:
a) Which is used in thermochemistry
b) Which obeys all the laws of thermodynamics
c) Quantity which depends only on the state of the system
d) Quantity which is used in measuring thermal change

Q8. The Gibbs energy change for a reversible reaction at equilibrium is:
a) Zero
b) Small positive
c) Small negative
d) Large positive

Q9. If, S + O₂ → SO₂; ∆H= -298.2 kJ ...(i)
SO₂ + 1/2 O₂ → SO₃; ∆H= -98.7 kJ ...(ii)
SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄; ∆H= -130.2 kJ ...(iii)
H₂ + 1/2 O₂ → H₂O; ∆H= -227.3 kJ ...(iv)
The enthalpy of formation of H₂SO₄ at 298 K will be:
a) - 754.4 kJ
b) + 320.5 kJ
c) - 650.3 kJ
d) - 433.7 kJ

Q10. The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called
a) Specific heat
b) Thermal capacity
c) Water equivalent
d) None of these

Answer Key

1.c 2.b 3.b 4.a 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.a 9.a 10.b

Solutions

1 (c)
H₂O(l) → H₂O(v) ∴∆n=1
∆H°=∆U°+∆nRT
40.66×10³=∆U°+1×8.314×373
∴∆U°=37559 J=37.56 kJ

2 (b)
(∂Q/∂T)_P=C_p and (∂Q/∂T)_V=C_v and C_p-C_v=R.

4 (a)
C(s) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂ (g); ∆H₁=-26.4
C(s) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂ (g); ∆H₂=-96.0
We have to find for ∆H, for reaction
CO + 1/2 O₂ → CO₂; ∆H₁=?
Eqs. (ii) - (i), we get
∆H = -94 - (-26.4) = -67.6 k cal

5 (c)
If ∆G=-ve, process is spontaneous

6 (d)
∆U-W=q
If cyclic process, then q=-W.

7 (c)
e.g. U, H, S etc.

8 (a)
∆G=0 for an equilibrium state.

9 (a)
Find ∆H for, H₂ + S + 2 O₂ → H₂SO₄

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