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Digestion & Adsorption MCQ Questions for NEET exam

Class 11 Biology MCQs

Digestion and Absorption

Are you searching for downloadable PDF files for MCQ questions for NEET? Our website JEET MCQ provides free educational materials to students of NEET, IIT JAM, GATE, and NET, etc examinations.

In this article, we have brought to you the MCQ questions from the class 11 biology chapter "Digestion & Adsorption". You can download the questions, their answers, and detailed solutions in a PDF format.

Also, note that you can find chapterwise questions on our website. You can follow the below links for doing so.

Digestion & Adsorption MCQ Questions for NEET PDF download

1. The richest sources of vitamin B₁₂ are
a) Goat’s liver and spirulina
b) Chocolate and green gram
c) Rice and hen’s egg
d) Carrot and chicken breast

2. The contraction of the gall bladder is due to
a) Gastrin
b) Cholecystokinin
c) Secretin
d) Kinase

3. In infants, the process of defecation occurs by
a) Reflex action without voluntary control
b) Reflex action with voluntary control
c) Voluntary relaxation of external and sphincter
d) Involuntary relaxation of internal and sphincter

4. Deficiency of tocopherol in the human body causes which condition?
a) Beriberi
b) Pellagra
c) Infertility
d) Scurvy

5. Brunner’s glands are located in
a) Oesophagus
b) Intestine
c) Stomach
d) Duodenum

6. Which is the correct chronological order for food processing in human beings?
a) Ingestion of food → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Egestion (Undigested)
b) Ingestion → Assimilation → Digestion → Absorption → Egestion
c) Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Egestion → Assimilation
d) Digestion → Ingestion → Assimilation → Absorption → Egestion

7. Riboflavin is
a) Vitamin-B_12
b) Vitamin-B_2
c) Vitamin-C
d) Vitamin-D

8. The stored food in animals is called
a) Cellulose
b) Starch
c) Glucose
d) Glycogen

9. Consider the following statements.
I. The anti-pellagra vitamin is nicotinamide present in milk, yeast, meat, and leafy
vegetables.
II. Crypts of Leiberkuhn are present in the liver.
III. Steapsin is the pancreatic amylase.
a) I and II correct
b) II and III correct
c) I and III incorrect
d) II and III incorrect

10. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble as well as an antioxidant?
a) Vitamin-B₁
b) Vitamin-A
c) Vitamin-D
d) Vitamin-C

For any questions, comment below. Follow our website for more valuable resources.

Plant Growth & Development MCQ Questions for NEET Exam - Download PDF

Are you searching for downloadable PDF files for MCQ questions for NEET? You have made it to the best place on the internet. Our website JEET MCQ provides free educational materials to students of NEET, IIT JAM, GATE, and NET, etc examinations.

In this article, we have brought to you the MCQ questions from the class 11 biology chapter "Plant Growth & Development". You can download the questions, their answers, and detailed solutions in a PDF format.

Also, note that you can find chapterwise questions on our website. You can follow the below links for doing so.

Plant Growth & Development MCQ Questions for NEET PDF download

1. Rapid and dramatic increase in shoot length is called
a) Triple response growth
b) Bolting
c) scarification
d) Night brake effect

2. Environment heterophylly is seen in
a) Cotton
b) Coriander
c) Larkspur
d) Buttercup

3. Genetically dwarf plants can be induced to grow tall by using
a) Gibberellins
b) Phycobillins
c) Auxins
d) Cytokinins

4. Increased growth per unit of time is termed as
a) Nascent growth rate
b) Growth rate
c) Biomass
d) All of these

5. Which plant hormone promotes seed dormancy, and bud dormancy and causes stomatal closure?
a) IAA
b) Abscisic acid
c) GA
d) cytokinin

6. I. Lag phase → Log phase → Stationary phase
II. Geometric and Arithmetic phase of growth
III. Growth shown by all living organisms in vivo
IV. L_t=L₀+r_tMatch the above characters with sigmoid curve, arithmetic growth, embryo development and choose the correct option accordingly
Sigmoid curve Arithmetic Embryo
growth development
a) II, I, III, IV
b) I, III, IV, II
c) I, II, III, IV
d) III, IV, III

7. A plant has 13 hours of critical daylight under which conditions it will flower
Duration of light period - Duration of dark period
a) 13 11
b) 11 13
c) 12 12
d) 10 14

8. The shedding of leaves, flowers, or fruits due to changes in the hormonal balance in plants, is referred to as
a) Senescence
b) Discussion
c) Photoperiodism
d) vernalization

9. The phytohormone that induces cell elongation is known to be produced by a fungus. The asexual stage of this fungus is called
a) Rhizopus sexualis
b) Fusarium moniliformae
c) Gibberella fujikuroi
d) Fusarium oxysporum

10. Cytokinins are mostly
a) Glucosides
b) Amino purines
c) Acidic
d) phenolic

For any questions, comment below. Follow our website for more valuable resources.

Respiration in Plants MCQ Questions for NEET - PDF Download

In this article, we have brought to you the MCQ questions from the class 11 biology chapter "Respiration in Plants". You can download the questions, their answers, and detailed solutions in a PDF format.

Also, note that you can find chapterwise questions on our website. You can follow the below links for doing so.

Respiration in Plants MCQ Questions for NEET PDF download

1. Which one is correct about the physiology of the eye?
a) The pressure within the eye (the intraocular pressure) is about 1.5 mm Hg (0.2 kPa)
b) When light is shone in one eye both pupils constrict
c) The pupils dilate when the eye is focused on a near object
d) The aqueous humour is an ultrafiltrate of plasma

2. Part of ear where sound is transduced is
a) Tympanic membrane
b) Malleus, incus and stapes
c) Semi-circular canal
d) Cochlea

3. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and mouth is dry. It is because of
a) Fight and flight response
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Both (a) and (c)

4. When the stimulus reaches the end of one neuron, it is conducted to the adjacent neuron through the secretions of
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Acetylcholine
c) Acetylcholine esterase
d) Acetyl Co-A

5. The reflex pathway comprises
a) One afferent neuron
b) One efferent neuron
c) One afferent and one efferent neuron
d) One afferent and one receptor neuron

6. The highly specialized cells called neurons can
a) Detect stimuli
b) Receive stimuli
c) Transmit stimuli
d) All of the above

7. If a motor nerve has a conduction velocity of 10 ms^(-1), how long will it take an action potential to reach a muscle 0.75 m from the spinal cord?
a) 75 m
b) 1.07 m
c) 14 m
d) 1.4 m

8. Which of the following statements are correct about the midbrain?
I. Located between the thalamus/hypothalamus
II. Has a canal named cerebral aqueduct passes through
III. The Dorsal part consists of 4 lobes
Choose the correct option
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III

9. A Presynaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron may or may not be separated by a gap called
a) Synaptic knob
b) Neuroreceptor gap
c) Synapse
d) Synaptic cleft

10. The band of fiber that joins corpora quadrigemina to the cerebellum is called
a) Pons Varolii
b) Valve of Vieussens
c) Corpus callosum
d) Corpus striatum

For any questions, comment below. Follow our website for more valuable resources.

Photosynthesis in higher plants MCQ Questions for NEET - PDF Download

In this article, we have brought to you the MCQ questions from the class 11 biology chapter "Photosynthesis in Higher Plants". You can download the questions, their answers, and detailed solutions in a PDF format.

Also, note that you can find chapterwise questions on our website. You can follow the below links for doing so.

Photosynthesis in higher plants MCQ Questions for NEET PDF download

1. As a compound to a C₃plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for the net production of one molecule of hexose sugar by C₄plants?
a) 2
b) 6
c) 0
d) 12

2. Proton gradient is broken down due to
a) Movement of electrons across the membrane to stroma
b) Movement of electrons across the membrane to the lumen
c) Movement of a proton across the membrane to the lumen
d) Movement of proton across the membrane to stroma

3. Which of the following is a simplified equation of photosynthesis?

4. The membrane of the thylakoid is called
a) Cell membrane
b) Fret membrane
c) Granum membrane
d) Thylakoid membrane

5. The enzyme responsible for primary carboxylation in C₃plants is
a) Hexokinase
b) Succinic dehydrogenase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) RuBP carboxylase oxygenase

6. The law of limiting factors was proposed with particular reference to photosynthesis. Identify the scientist, who proposed this law?
a) Calvin
b) Weismann
c) Emerson
d) Blackman

7. The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the Calvin cycle requires
a) 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of NADPH₂ b) 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH₂ c) 18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH₂ d) 12 molecules each of ATP and NADPH₂

8. The enzymatic reactions incorporate CO₂ into the plants leading to the synthesis of sugar in
a) Stroma
b) Stroma lamella
c) Grana
d) Both (a) and (b)

9. In CAM plants, carbon dioxide acceptor is
a) RuBP
b) PEP
c) OAA
d) PGA

10. PEP carboxylase
I. is involved in at least some CO₂ fixation in both C₃ and C₄ plants
II. Catalyses the reaction of fixing CO₂ into pyruvic acid in bundle sheath cells
III. is capable of fixing CO₂ more efficiently at lower atmospheric CO₂ concentrations than RuBP carboxylase
Select the correct option
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I, II and III
d) Only III

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Structural Organisation in Animals MCQ Questions

Hello Students. In this article, I have brought to you multiple-choice questions from the Biology chapter "Structural Organization in Animals". In this chapter, we study how cells work together to form tissues, organs, and organ systems in animals. I have also provided detailed solutions and explanations for the answers to all the questions.

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links:

Questions

1. Lymphoid tissue is found in
a) Thymus
b) Tonsils
c) Lymph nodes
d) All of these

2. Earthworm lives in the burrows made by boring and swallowing the soil to
a) Uptake food
b) Get moisture
c) Procreation
d) Avoid opponents

3. Which of the following cells are round and biconcave in shape?
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Columnar epithelial cells
d) Nerve cells

4. Given below the diagram of the internal organs of a frog and identify A to F

a) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Testis, D-Kidney, E-Urethra, F-Urinary bladder
b) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-Kidney, E-Rectum, F-Urinary bladder
c) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Ovary, D-Kidney, E-ileum, F-Urinary bladder
d) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-Kidney, E-Colon, F-Urinary bladder

5. The clitellum divides the body of the earthworm into …… regions
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5

6. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of adipose tissue

a) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Cell wall
b) A-Fat storage area, B-Mast cell, C-Plasma membrane
c) A-Cell fluid, B-Collagen fibres, C-Plasmalemma
d) A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus, C-Plasma membrane

7. How many litres of blood is present in the normal human body?
a) 6.8 L
b) 6.0 L
c) 5.9 L
d) 7.2 L

8. The lining of body cavities, ducts and tube are made up of
a) Compound epithelium
b) Simple epithelium
c) Cuboidal epithelium
d) Keratinised epithelium

9. Which of the following metalloproteins is found in the blood of earthworms?
a) Haemoglobin
b) Hemerytherin
c) Hemocyanin
d) Myoglobin

10. Histamine, serotonin and heparin are secreted by
a) Lymphocytes
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Basophils

11. Find out the wrongly matched pair.
a) Squamous epithelium - Skin of frog
b) Columnar epithelium - Peritoneum of body cavity
c) Ciliated epithelium - Bronchioles
d) Stratified squamous epithelium - Oesophagus

12. The body wall of the earthworm is covered by which of the following layers (externally or externally)?
a) Epidermis, cuticle, coelomic epithelium, longitudinal muscle, circular muscles.
b) Cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles, coelomic epithelium, longitudinal muscle.
c) Non-cellular cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles, longitudinal muscles, coelomic epithelium.
d) Coelomic epithelium, epidermis, cuticle, circular muscles, longitudinal muscles.

13. The number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain of a frog is
a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) 7

14. The ova of the earthworms are fertilised by the sperm within the
a) Cocoon
b) Seminal vesicles
c) Soil
d) None of the above

15. Which of the following tissues provides a covering layer for some of the body parts?
a) Connective tissues
b) Muscular tissues
c) Epithelial tissues
d) Neural tissues

16. Consider the following statements about the connective tissue
I. Their special function is linking and supporting the other organs tissues of the body
II. It is the most abundant type of animal tissue
III. Blood is a specialised connective tissue which contains collagen
IV. The cells of connective tissue secrete mucous
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV

17. Which of the following types of connective tissue is present at the tip of the human nose?
a) Cartilage
b) Bone
c) Adipose tissue
d) None of these

18. The tissue which forms the glands in humans is
a) Muscular tissue
b) Nervous tissue
c) Epithelium tissue
d) Connective tissue

19. How many species of Pheretima are found all over the world?
a) 200
b) 300
c) 400
d) 500

20. In which of the following segments of earthworm, septal nephridia is present?
a) 15-last
b) 8-15
c) 18-last
d) 15-17

Answers

1-d; 2-b; 3-b; 4-b5-a; 6-d; 7-a; 8-b9-a; 10-d; 11-b; 12-c13-a; 14-a; 15-c; 16-c 17-a; 18-c; 19-d; 20-a

Solutions

1 (d)
Lymphoid tissue consists of spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes, thymus gland, Peyer’s patches, liver, etc. Such organs secrete lymph, producing lymphocytes which are known as lymphoid organs. The spleen is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body. Lymphoid tissue shares responsibility with myeloid tissue (red bone marrow) for producing agranular leucocytes.

2 (b)
Earthworm is a reddish-brown terrestrial invertebrate that lives in moist soil, rich in humus. They are soft and naked and, hence cannot survive on the dry earth. Therefore, they live in burrows made by boring and swallowing the soil.

3 (b)
Red blood cells (RBC_S) or erythrocytes are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. They are devoid of nuclei in most mammals and are round or biconcave in shape. It is biconcave because such a shape has increased surface area (for O_2transfer) and allows easy squeezability of the RBC_S through the blood vessels.

4 (b)
A-Gall bladder; B-Lungs; C-Fat bodies; D-Kidney; E-Rectum; F-Urinary bladder.

5 (a)
Clitellum divides the body of earthworm into three regions; preclitellar, clitellar and postclitellar. segments.

6 (d)
A-Fat storage area
B-Nucleus
C-Plasma membrane

7 (a)
An average adult person has about 6.8 litres of blood.

8 (b)
Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.

9 (a)
In earthworms, the blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which gets dissolved in the blood plasma. Blood contains leucocytes only.

10 (d)
Basophils (one of the types of granulocytes) secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions. They are probably like mast cells of connective tissue.

11 (b)
Squamous epithelium - Skin of frog
Columnar epithelium - Stomach
Ciliated epithelium - Bronchioles
Stratified squamous epithelium - Oesophagus
Glandular epithelium - Salivary gland

12 (c)
The body wall of the earthworm is covered by a non-cellular cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles and longitudinal muscles, and coelomic epithelium.

13 (a)
There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain of the frog.

14 (a)
In Pheretima fertilization is external (outside the body) within specialised structures called cocoons. These are hard shell structures containing mature sperm, egg cells and nutritive fluid. These hard structures are developed due to the hardening of clitellar secretions.

15 (c)
Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment and thus provides a covering to body parts.

16 (c)
Specialised connective tissues include cartilage, bone, adipose and blood. In all connective tissues, except blood the cells secrete collagen. Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBCs and WBCs. Cells of connective tissues secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin. These fibres provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissues.

17 (a)
Cartilage is a specialised connective tissue, which is solid, pliable and resists compression.

18 (c)
The glandular epithelium consists of specialised columnar or cuboidal cells, which are specialised for secretion. They may be unicellular, e.g., goblet cells of the alimentary canal or multicellular, e.g., salivary gland.

19 (d)
There are about 500 species of earthworms all over the world.

20 (a)
Septal nephridia, present on both sides of the intersegmental septa from segment 15 to the last opens into the intestine of earthworm’s excretory system.

These were the 20 questions from Structural Organization in Animals. Thanks for visiting.

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams

Are you preparing for competitive exams such as NEET, ACT or SAT? You are in the right place.

In this article, I am about to share the 30 most probable objective questions from the chapter "Mineral Nutrition", which might be helpful for your exam preparation. This chapter discusses the ways by which plants and animals get their nutrition from inorganic materials. Alongside the questions, we have also provided detailed explanations for every answer so that you can clear your doubts.

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links:

Questions

1. Enzyme nitrogenase is responsible for
a) Nitrification
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Nitrite reduction
d) Nitrate reduction

2. Nitrifying bacteria
a) Liberate ammonia
b) Change ammonia into ionic form
c) Oxidise ammonia to nitrate
d) Oxidise ammonia to nitrite

3. Plants growing near the nuclear test sites take up and accumulate which of the following elements?
a) Gold
b) Selenium
c) Strontium
d) All of these

4. Name the minerals responsible for maintaining cation-anion balance in the plant cells
a) K⁺ and Fe⁺³
b) Cl^- and K⁺
c) Ca⁺² and Mg⁺²
d) Cl^- and Mg⁺²

5. What is the major function of air stone?
a) Remove CO₂ content from the nutrient solution
b) Dissolves O₂ in the nutrient solution
c) Increases the level of N₂ in the nutrient solutions
d) Removes O₂ from the nutrient solution

6. In hydroponic vegetables, the pH preferred by most vegetables is slightly
a) Alkaline
b) Neutral
c) Acidic
d) Basic

7. Which of the following are considered the roles of iron (Fe) in plants? I. An important constituent of cytochrome II. Activator of catalase III. Essential for chlorophyll synthesis Choose the correct option
a) Only I
b) Only III
c) Only II
d) All of these

8. By applying which of the following practices, contamination of hydroponics plants can be reduced?
a) Change the medium every week
b) Do not use tools from the outdoor garden
c) Complete aeration in a hydroponic tank
d) All of the above

9. An essential element is that which
a) Improves the health of the plant
b) Is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants
c) Is found in plant ash
d) Is available in the soil

10. Essential elements perform many functions which include I. Permeability of the cell membrane II. Maintenance of osmotic concentration of the cell sap III. Major constituents of macromolecules and coenzymes IV. Buffering action Choose the correct option
a) Only III
b) I and III
c) Only I
d) I, II and III

11. Which of the following metals causes harmful effects?
a) Lead
b) Cobalt
c) Uranium
d) All of these

12. Nitrogen is mainly absorbed in the form of
a) Nitrate
b) Nitrite
c) Ammonium
d) All of these

13. In the initial phase of minerals absorption ions are taken up
a) Slowly
b) Rapidly
c) Fluently
d) Simultaneously

14. Which of the following is true regarding manganese toxicity in plants?
a) Induction deficiencies of iron, magnesium, and calcium
b) Appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins
c) Inhibition of Ca^(2+) ions translocation in the shoot apex
d) All of the above

15. Sulphur is found as a constituent in which of the following amino acids?
a) Cysteine
b) Methionine
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

16. What is the key principle of the EBB and flow system in hydroponics?
a) It floods and drains periodically
b) It makes a tide flowing over the roots
c) It sprays a mist of nutrients on the roots
d) None of the above

17. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a technique for which of the following vegetables?
a) Seedless cucumber
b) Tomato
c) Lettuce
d) All of these

18. For the uptake of ions in the second phase of absorption of minerals, the pathway followed is called
a) Passive uptake
b) Active uptake
c) Neutral
d) None of these

19. How many essential mineral elements have been discovered yet?
a) 17
b) 107
c) 110
d) 150

20. Which of the following is a rootless aquatic plant in which a portion of the leaf forms a tiny sac for trapping insects?
a) Nepenthes
b) Drosera
c) Utricularia
d) Dionaea

21. Which of the given options is correct for hydroponics? Select the correct pair I. Hydroponics technique is useful in areas having infertile and dry soils II. Hydroponics can regulate pH optimum for a particular crop III. It increases the labor cost IV. It increases the problem of weeding
a) I and IV
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) Only I

22. Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants as I. H_2 PO_4^- II. HPO_4 III. HPO_4^(2-) IV. H_2 PO^-
a) Only I
b) Only III
c) I and III
d) Only II

23. Insectivorous plants eat the insect for
a) Na-K
b) Nitrogen
c) Chlorine
d) Phosphorus

24. Aeroponics are
a) Aerial plants
b) Aerated plants
c) Soilers cultivated plants
d) None of these

25. The given diagram belongs to bacteroids in the nodule. Identify A and B and choose the correct option accordingly

a) A-Bacteria; B-Bacteroids
b) A-Leghaemoglobin; B-Bacteroides
c) A-Bacteroids; B-Bacteria
d) A-Bacteroids; B-Leghaemoglobin

26. Insectivorous plants eat insects for their requirement of
a) Sodium-potassium
b) Nitrogen
c) Chlorine
d) Phosphorus

27. Molybdenum is the essential constituent of
a) Nitrogenase
b) Respiratory chain
c) Growth regulators
d) Chlorophyll

28. Select the correct statement.
a) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen
b) Legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria living in fruits
c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules
d) None of the above

29. Which among the following are used as media for hydroponics?
a) Coco air
b) Rock cool
c) Gravel
d) All of these

30. The core metal of chlorophyll is
a) Fe
b) Mg
c) Ni
d) Cu

Answers

1-b 2-c 3-c 4-b 5-b 6-c 7-d 8-d 9-b 10-d 11-d 12-a 13-b 14-d 15-c 16-a 17-d 18-b 19-a 20-c 21-b 22-c 23-b 24-c 25-c 26-b 27-a 28-c 29-c 30-b

Solutions

1 (b)
The fixation of nitrogen in root nodules of legumes takes place in the presence of the enzyme ‘nitrogenase’. This enzyme is an enzyme complex consisting of two components called protein-1 and protein-2. The active nitrogenase complex contains protein-1 and protein-2 components in a ratio of 1:2.

2 (c)
Ammonia produced by the degradation of manures and organic matter may not be available to plants because it is readily leached from soil. It is converted to nitrate with the help of certain microorganisms, i.e., called nitrification (the used bacteria, nitrifying bacteria).
2 NH₃ + 3 O₂ → 2 NO₂^- + 2H⁺ + 2 H₂O
2NO₂^- + O₂ → 2 NO₂^-Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrite by the bacteria Nitrosomonas and/or Nitrosococcus. The nitrite is further oxidized to nitrate with the help of the bacterium Nitrobacter.

3 (c)
Some plant species accumulate selenium, some others gold, while some plants growing near nuclear test sites take up radioactive strontium.

4 (b)
Functions of Cl^- It helps photolysis of water, maintenance of solute concentration, and ionic balance.
The function of K Potassium plays an important role in the opening and closing of stomata. These both can alter the osmotic potential of a cell

5 (b)
An air pump used in conjunction with an air stone is an excellent way to dissolve oxygen in the nutrient solution

6 (c)
An ideal pH range for most hydroponic crops is between 5.5 and 6.5.
It is important because it affects the availability and absorption of several of the 16 atomic elements needed for plant growth

7 (d)
Functions of Fe It is involved in the transfer of electrons like ferredoxin and cytochromes. It is reversibly oxidized from Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ during electron transfer. It activates catalase enzymes and is essential for the formation of chlorophyll

8 (d)
All of the above

9 (b)
Essential element has the following features:
1. It is indispensable for the growth of plants.
2. Cannot be replaced by any other element.
3. Absence/deficiency produces disorders.
4. Has nutritive value.
5. Necessary for completion of the vegetative or reproductive phase.
6. These are- C, H, O, N, P, K, S, Mg, Ca, Fe, B, Mn, Cu, Zn, Mo and Cl.

10 (d)
Essential elements perform several functions. They participate in various metabolic processes in the plant cells, such as permeability of the cell membrane, maintenance of osmotic concentration of the cell sap, electron transport systems, buffering action, enzymatic activities, and acts as a major constituent of macromolecules and coenzymes

11 (d)
All lead, cobalt, and uranium cause harmful effects.

12 (a)
Nitrogen is mainly absorbed in the form of nitrate from soil.

13 (b)
In the initial phase, ions are taken up rapidly.

14 (d)
The prominent symptom of manganese toxicity is the appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins.
It is important to know that manganese competes with iron and magnesium for its uptake by the plants and with magnesium for its binding with enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium translocation in the shoot apex. Therefore, excess of manganese may induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium, and calcium.

15 (c)
Plant obtains sulfur in the form of sulfate (SO₄^2-). Sulfur is present in two amino acids-cysteine and methionine and is the main constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins, and ferredoxin.

16 (a)
The EBB and flow system works by temporarily flooding the grown tray with nutrition solution and then draining the solution back into the reservoir.

17 (d)
Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a technique for the commercial production of vegetables such as tomatoes, seed less cucumbers, and lettuce.

18 (b)
For the uptake of ions in the second phase, the pathway followed is called active uptake.

19 (a)
17 elements are essential for plant growth.

20 (c)
Utricularia or bladderwort is an insectivorous submerged aquatic plant. In which the rootless floating stem bears highly dissected leaves. A portion of the leaf is modified into sacs, like bladders of about 1.3 mm in diameter. Each bladder is guarded by a small valve which opens inwardly. Small insects flow into the bladder with water, but cannot come out due to the valve.

21 (b)
Hydroponics technique is useful in areas having infertile and dry soils and can regulate the pH optimum for a particular crop.

22 (c)
Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants from soil in the form of phosphate ions either as H₂PO₄^- or HPO₄^2-.

23 (b)
Insectivorous plants are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition but they grow in marshy or muddy soils, which are generally deficient in nitrogen, and in other to fulfil their nitrogen requirements, these plants catch and digest small insects.

24 (c)
Aeroponics is soilless cultivated of plants

25 (c)
A-leghaemoglobin, B-bacteroids

26 (b)
Insectivorous plants eat insects for nitrogen

27 (a)
Enzyme nitrogenase is required for biological nitrogen fixation. It is a metal protein. The metal present in the nitrogenase enzyme is molybdenum. Hence, molybdenum is an important element for nitrogen fixation.

28 (c)
The legumes (papilionaceous plants) are incapable of nitrogen fixation. The Rhizobium bacteria are present symbiotically in the root nodules of these plants which have the capability of nitrogen fixation.

29 (c)
Coco air, perlite, rock cool, and gravel all are used as media for hydroponics

30 (b)
In the center of each chlorophyll molecule is found a magnesium metal.

These questions will be helpful in the preparation and revision of the chapter "Mineral Nutrition". Thanks for visiting my website.

Anatomy of flowering plants MCQ questions

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In this article, we will be providing you with 40 multiple-choice questions from a biology chapter named Anatomy of Flowering Plants. This chapter describes the basic structure and organization of flowering plants including their roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits, and seeds. A detailed explanation is also provided for the answers of all questions so that you can clear your doubts.

Question 1-20

1. Cambium activity is
a) More active towards the periphery of stems
b) More active towards the lateral sides of stems
c) More active towards the inner side of stem
d) Same on both sides

2. Cambium is a type of
a) Apical meristem
b) Intercalary meristem
c) Lateral meristem
d) Permanent of mature meristem

3. Pith is a central part of the ground tissues generally made up of
a) Parenchyma
b) Collenchyma
c) Chlorenchyma
d) Sclerenchyma

4. Interfascicular cambium is found
a) Between pith and vascular bundle
b) Between two vascular bundles
c) In the vascular bundle
d) Outside the bundle

5. Meristematic tissue are
a) Premature ability of division
b) Mature does not have the ability to division
c) Premature not having the ability to division
d) Complex differentiating in xylem, phloem, and cambium

6. I. The 1° and 2° phloem get gradually crushed due to the continued formation and accumulation of 2° xylem
II. 1° xylem remains more or less intact in or near the center
III. Secondary growth results in an increase in the length of the axis
Select the correct statements
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III

7. Cork is used as the stopper for bottles, for shock absorption and insulation because of
a) It is light and compressible
b) Non-reactive
c) Sufficiently resistant to fire
d) All of the above

8. Medullary rays are formed by the
a) Radially placed parenchymatous cells between vascular bundles
b) Longitudinally placed parenchymatous cells between vascular bundles
c) Laterally placed parenchymatous cells between vascular bundles
d) Obliquely placed parenchymatous cells between vascular bundles

9. Identify A to D in the given diagram and choose the correct option

a) A-Epidermal cell, B-Guard cell, C-Subsidiary cell, D-Chloroplast
b) A-Epidermal cell, B-Subsidiary cell, C-Chloroplast, D-Guard cell
c) A-Epidermal cell, B-Chloroplast, C-Subsidiary cell, D-Guard cell
d) A-Guard cell, B-Chloroplast, C-Subsidiary cell, D-Epidermal cell

10. The jute fibers anatomically are
a) Bastfibres
b) Cortical fibres
c) Xylem fibers
d) Pith fibres

11. The merismatic tissue responsible for the cutting of vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) is called
a) Cork cambium
b) Vascular cambium
c) Lateral meristem
d) Endodermis

12. Secondary phloem of a dicot root is made up of
I. sieve tube
II. companion cell
III. phloem parenchyma
Select the correct option for the given statement
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) All of these

13. The internal structure of a plant stem is observed. There is a discontinuous ring of angular collenchyma below the epidermis. Type of vascular bundles are of the same type as in the stems of solanaceous plants. Sieve tube elements possess simple sieve plates, to identify the plant.
a) Helianthus
b) Cucurbita
c) Zeamays
d) Hydrilla

14. The innermost layer of the cortex is called
a) Epidermis
b) Casparian strips
c) Endodermis
d) Pericycle

15. Amphistomatic leaf is
a) Dicotyledonous leaf
b) Monocotyledonous leaf
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

16. Which is not a characteristic of plant cell walls?
a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of the life cycle
b) Among other compounds contains compounds built of simple sugars
c) May contain enzymes that are biologically active
d) Often contain strengthening polymers

17. The ring arrangement of the vascular bundle is the characteristic feature of
a) Dicot root
b) Monocot root
c) Monocot stem
d) Dicot stem

18. Primary meristem is
a) Apical meristem
b) Intercalary meristem
c) Root apical meristem and shoot apical meristem
d) Both (a) and (b)

19. I. These tissues are found as layers or patches
II. It consists of cells which are thickened at the corners
III. It often contains chloroplast
IV. Intercellular spaces are absent
V. They provide mechanical support to growing parts of plants
The above characters are attributed to
a) Vascular tissue
b) Collenchyma
c) Parenchyma
d) Simple sclerenchyma

20. Examples of lateral meristems are
a) Phellogen and procambium
b) Fascicular cambium and procambium
c) Procambium and dermatogen
d) Fascicular cambium and cork cambium

Answers

1 c 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 a 6 a 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 a 11 b 12 d 13 b 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 d

Solutions

1 (c)
Cambium is generally more active on the inner side than the outer. As a result, the amount of secondary xylem produced is more than the secondary phloem and soon forms a compact mass

2 (c)
Lateral Meristem The meristem occurs on the sides and takes part in increasing the girth of the plant. Only one type of primary lateral meristem is found in plants. It is intrafascicular cambium. The cambium lies in vascular bundles of dicot and gymnosperm stem in between phloem and xylem

3 (a)
The pith or medulla forms the central region of the stem and root. Usually, the pith of the dicot stem is largely parenchymatous. It is devoid of chlorophyll in the mature state. The pith is not distinguishable in the mature state. The pith is not distinguishable in monocot stems.

4 (b)
As growth begins, the cells of medullary rays, which lie in between vascular bundles become active and rise to a cambial strip called interfascicular cambium constituting cambium.

5 (a)
Tissue is a group of cells performing a particular function. Tissues are mainly of two types
(i) Meristematic tissues These tissues contain immature and young cells that are much active and capable of showing continuous divisions and redivisions. They may be pro meristem, primary meristem, secondary meristem, apical meristem, intercalary meristem, and lateral meristem.
(ii) Permanent tissues These are made up of mature cells, which have lost the capacity to divide and have attained a permanent shape, size, and function, e.g., simple (parenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma), complex (xylem, phloem) and secretory tissue.

6 (a)
Secondary growth increases the girth not the length of the plant. The length of the plant increases by apical meristem

7 (d)
Cork prevents the loss of water by evaporation. It also protects the interior against the entry of harmful microorganisms, mechanical injury, and extremes of temperature. Cork is light, compressible, non-reactive, and sufficiently resistant to fire. It is used as a stopper for bottles, shock absorption, and insulation

8 (a)
Dicot stems In between the vascular bundles, there are a few layers of radially placed parenchymatous cells. These parenchymatous cells are called medullary rays

9 (b)

Diagram (I) Represents the dicotyledon plant because it has bean-shaped guard cells
Diagram (II) Represents the monocotyledon plant because of having dumb-bell shaped guard cells

10 (a)
Bast or phloem fibers are present in pericycle (e.g.,Corchoruscapsularis (jute), Hibiscus cannabinus (patsan), Crotalariajuncea (sunn hemp). These fibers are also known as extrasolar fibers.

11 (b)
Vascular Cambium
The meristematic layer that is responsible for cutting off vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) is called vascular cambium. In the young stem. It is present in patches as a single layer between the xylem and phloem. Later, it forms a complete ring

12 (d)
The secondary phloem is made up of sieve tubes, companion cells, and phloem parenchyma. Sclerenchyma fibers are rare. The secondary xylem is formed of vessels, tracheids, and xylem parenchyma

13 (b)
Hypodermis in the stem of Cucurbita is made up of angular collenchyma. Hypodermis is two or three-layered or sometimes altogether absent. The vascular bundles are conjoint, open and bicollateral, i.e., phloem is present on both sides of the xylem.

14 (c)
The innermost layer of cortex is called the endodermis. It comprises a single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces. The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have a deposition of water impermeable, waxy material called suberin in the form of casparian strips

15 (b)
The isobilateral monocot leaves usually do not show a distinction between petiole and lamina. The leaf base is commonly sheathing, that is covering the stem partially or completely. The venation is parallel. Amphistomatic leaves have stomata on both the surface

16 (a)
The cell wall in a plant cell is found in both phases, i.e., sporophytic and gametophytic.

17 (d)
The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of the dicot stem. Each vascular bundle is conjoint, open, and with endarch protoxylem

18 (d)
Both apical meristem and intercalary meristem are primary meristems because they appear early in the life of plants and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body

19 (b)
Collenchyma.
The collenchyma occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants. It is found either as a homogenous layer or in patches. It consists of cells that are much thickened at the corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin. Collenchymatous cells may be oval, spherical, or polygonal and often contain chloroplasts. These cells assimilate food when they contain chloroplasts. Intercellular spaces are absent. They provide mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of a leaf

20 (d)
Lateral meristems occur laterally in the axis, parallel to the sides of stems and roots. This meristem consists of initials, which divide mainly in one plane (periclinal) and results in an increase in the diameter of an organ, e.g., cambium of vascular bundles (fascicular, interfascicular, and extrastelar cambium), cork cambium or phellogen.

Question 21-40

21. Medullary or pith ray is the
a) Radial strip of parenchyma which is present between vascular bundles
b) Radial strip of collenchyma which is present between vascular bundles
c) Radial strip of sclerenchyma which is present between vascular bundles
d) The another name of stele

22. Which of the function in the given options does not belongs to the monocot root?
a) Conduction of water from the root hairs to the inner tissue
b) Storage of food
c) The outer most layer or layers of the cortex produce protective exodermis in the older roots
d) Presence of secondary growth

23. Conjoint vascular bundles are common in
a) Roots
b) Stems
c) Leaves
d) Both (b) and (c)

24. Periderm is produced from
a) Cork cambium
b) Procambium
c) Secondary cortex
d) Vascular cambium

25. In stem, the xylem is
a) Exarch
b) Mesarch
c) Endarch
d) All of these

26. Root apical meristem is derived from the
a) Plumule part of embryo
b) Scutellum part of embryo
c) Radical part of embryo
d) Endosperm part of embryo

27. Which of the following plants shows multiple epidermis?
a) Croton
b) Allium
c) Nerium
d) Cucurbita

28. The growth of root and stem in length with the help of apical meristem is called …A…. Apart from primary growth most dicotyledonous plant exhibit an increase in girth called …B…
Choose the correct combination of A, B and C in respect to the above paragraph
a) A-primary growth; B-secondary growth
b) A-secondary growth; B-primary growth
c) A-secondary growth; B-tertiary growth
d) A-primary growth; B-tertiary growth

29. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Study of the internal structure is called anatomy
b) Plants have cells as the basic unit cells, are organised into tissues
c) Tissues are organised into organs
d) All of the above

30. In monocotyledonous stem, the vascular bundles are
a) Conjoint and open
b) Conjoint and closed
c) Scattered through out the ground tissue
d) Both (b) and (c)

31. Select the wrong statements
I. Primary and secondary phloem gets crushed during secondary growth
II. During secondary growth, primary xylem remains more or less intact
a) I is correct and II is incorrect
b) II is correct and I is incorrect
c) Both are incorrect
d) Both are correct

32. I. Fat
II. Protein
III. Sugar
IV. Salt
Which of the above is/are present in higher concentration with the meristematic cells?
a) Only I
b) I and II
c) Only IV
d) III and IV

33. G H Shull observed inbreeding depression in a plant. Miller and Letham isolated a hormone from the immature seeds of that plant. Which of the following characters is not associated with the plant?
a) Atactostelic condition in stem
b) Bundle sheath in leaf
c) Chromosomal number of endospermous cell is 30
d) Medulla absent in the root

34. The position of protoxylem in leaf is
a) Adaxial
b) Abaxial
c) Surrounded by metaxylem
d) Lateral

35. The inner, darker and harder portion of secondary xylem that cannot conduct water, in an older dicot stem, is called
a) Alburnum
b) Bast
c) Wood
d) Duramen

36. The cells arranged in multiple layers between the epidermis and pericycle is called
a) Pith
b) Stele
c) Medullary rays
d) Cortex

37. Hardness of seed coats is due to the presence of
a) Sclerenchymatousfibres
b) Sclereids
c) Bast
d) Stone cells

38. Epidermis is derived from
a) Cambium
b) Primary xylem
c) Secondary xylem
d) Protoderm

39. The activity of cambium in plants is under the control of
a) Many physiological factors
b) Many environmental factors
c) Only water availability
d) Both (a) and (b)

40. Bark includes
I. phellogen
II. phellem
III. secondary phloem
IV. secondary xylem
Select the correct combination
a) Only I
b) I, II and III
c) Only III
d) All of these

Answers

21 a 22 d 23 d 24 a 25 d 26 c 27 c 28 a 29 d 30 d 31 d 32 c 33 d 34 a 35 d 36 d 37 d 38 d 39 d 40 b

Solutions

21 (a)
Medullary or pith rays They are the radial strips of parenchyma which are present between adjacent vascular bundles. The medullary rays connects the pith with pericycle and cork

22 (d)
Due to the absence of vascular cambium the monocots don’t show secondary growth

23 (d)
Both (b) and (c).
When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner on different radii, the arrangement is called radial, such as in roots. In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of vascular bundles. Such vascular bundles are common in stems and leaves. The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the phloem located only on the outer side of xylem

24 (a)
The periderm consists of phellem (cork), phellogen (cork cambium) and phelloderm. The Phellogen develops in the epidermis, the cortex, the phloem or the root pericycle and produces phellem towards the outside and phelloderm towards the inside.

25 (d)
When the xylem is differentiated from the point of origin towards outside (i.e., periphery of axis), it is known as centrifugal xylem. In such cases as represented by stems, the protoxylem is situated towards inside and the metaxylem towards outside. This type of condition of xylem is called endarch.

26 (c)
Root Apical Meristem It is found at the tip of the main root and its branches. In case of tap root system, the root apical meristem is formed from radicle part of the embryo or its derivatives. In adventitious root, the root apical meristem is produced from the derivatives of shoot apex

27 (c)
Usually, epidermis consists of single layer of epidermal cells (i.e.,uniseriate). But in case of Nerium, multiple epidermis is found with thick-walled epidermal cells.

28 (a)
The primary growth in plants occur as a result of activity of the apical meristem, which helps in the elongation of roots with the help of root apical meristem and elongation of stem with shoot apical meristem. Dry growth is exhibited by the presence of vascular cambium

29 (d)
Study of internal structure of plants is called anatomy. Plants have cells as the basic unit, cells are organised into tissues and in turn the tissues are organised into organs

30 (d)
In monocotyledon, the vascular bundles are scattered throughout the ground tissue. They are conjoint and closed (not having vascular cambium)

31 (d)
The primary xylem is in the centre of the stem, while primary phloem is pushed outward and crushed into the cortex by the significant activity of vascular cambium. While the secondary phloem differentiates from the cells that divide towards the outside of the stem

32 (c)
In the meristematic cells, there is no reserve food materials like fat, protein and sugar. So, salts or inorganic material have more concentration than any other cells

33 (d)
Inbreeding is mating between individuals related by descent or ancestry. Inbreeding depression is the reduction or loss in vigour and fertility as a result of inbreeding. Detailed information on inbreeding in maize was published independently by East and Shull. Maize is a monocot plant. Bundle sheath in leaf and medulla in roots are present in maize.

34 (a)
In the leaf of flowering plants, the phloem is always found towards the lower side (abaxial) and xylem towards the upper (adaxial) side.

35 (d)
The inner, darker and harder portion of secondary xylem that cannot conduct water, in an older dicot stem is known as heartwood or duramen, whereas the outer, functional, water conducting, younger secondary xylem constitute the sap-wood or alburnum.

36 (d)
The cells arranged in multiple layer between epidermis and pericycle constitutes the cortex (dicot stem)
It consists of three zones
(i) Hypodermis
(ii) Cortical layer
(iii) Endodermis

37 (d)
Stone cells provide the hardness to seed coats.

38 (d)
Epidermis Epidermis is the outermost protective layer of plant organs. It is usually simple layered but in the leaves of tropical plants (e.g., oleander, banyan) and velamen of some roots, the epidermis is more than one layer thickness. The epidermal tissue system is derived from the protoderm

39 (d)
Both (a) and (b).
The activity of cambium is under the control of many physiological and environmental factors. In temperate regions, the climatic conditions are not uniform through the year. In the spring season, cambium is very active and produces a large number of xylary elements having vessels with wider cavities. The wood formed during this season is called spring wood or early wood

40 (b)
Bark refers to a number of tissue types viz., periderm and secondary phloem

Cell Cycle and Division MCQ Questions for NEET

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In this article, we have brought 40 multiple choice questions from class 11 biology's chapter i.e Cell Cycle and Division. In order to clear your doubts, we have provided detailed explanations for every question as well.

For chapter-wise MCQ questions, visit the following links:

Questions 1-20

1. The second meiotic division leads to
a) Separation of sex chromosomes
b) Fresh DNA synthesis
c) Separation of chromatids and centromere
d) Separation of homologous chromosomes

2. In meiosis, chromosome number becomes
a) Half of its parent chromosome
b) Same as that of parent chromosome
c) One fourth of its parent chromosome
d) None of the above

3. Consider the following statements about plant cytokinesis
I. It usually occurs by cell plate method
II. The spindle usually persists during cytokinesis
III. Cell plate grows centrifugally
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) I, II and III

4. I. A phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
II. In animal cells, during the B phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
III. During the C phase, proteins are synthesized for the preparation of mitosis, while cell growth continues
Identify the blanks (A-C) to complete the given statements (I-III) with reference to NCERT textbook
a) A-G₂, B-S, C-G₁
b) A-S, B-G₂, C-G₁
c) A-S, B-G₁, C-G₂
d) A-G₁, B-S, C-G₂

5. Select the matched ones. I . S-phase - DNA replication
II. Zygotene - Synapsis
III. Diplotene - Crossing over
IV. Meiosis - Both haploid and diploid cells
V G₂-phase - Quiescent stage
a) I and II only
b) III and IV only
c) III and V only
d) I,III and V only

6. Which type of cell division helps in regeneration of cells?
a) Mitosis
b) Amitosis
c) Meiosis
d) Karyokinesis

7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about meiosis?
I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but only a single cycle of DNA replication
IV. Meiosis-I is initiated after the parental chromosome replication which produce identical sister chromatids at the S-phase
The correct option is
a) I and III
b) II only
c) II and III
d) I, II, III and IV

8. Choose the correct statements regarding cell cycle
I. Interphase is called the resting phase
II. Interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for division
III. The interphase is divided into phases, i.e.,G₁, S and G₂-phase
IV. Interphase represents the phase between the two successive M-phases
The option with correct statements is
a) I and IV
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II, III and IV

9. Crossing over occurs during
a) Leptotene
b) Diplotene
c) Pachytene
d) Zygotene

10. During meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or segregated from each other. How many allele(s) is/are then transmitted to a gamete?
a) Four
b) Two
c) Six
d) One

11. The phragmoplast is organized at the
a) Beginning of anaphase
b) End of anaphase
c) Beginning of telophase
d) End of telophase

12. The morphology of chromosomes can be studied most easily in
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

13. Identify the correct stage of mitosis by viewing the diagram carefully?
a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase

14. The number of chromosomes becomes half in
a) Anaphase-I
b) Anaphase-II
c) Telpohase-I
d) Telophase-II

15. In which of the following phase of cell cycle, mitotic division got arrested?
a) G₂-phase
b) G₀-phase
c) S-phase
d) M-phase

16. Which of the following phase of cell cycle is also known as the resting phase?
a) G₁-phase
b) M-phase
c) S-phase
d) Interphase

17. Differentiated cell remains at which stage?
a) G₁
b) G₂
c) G₀
d) M

18. The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
a) Nucleus
b) Chromosomes
c) Cytoplasm
d) None of these

19. Choose the correct combination of options to select the correct statement for prophase
I. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes
II. The assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by the microtubules
III. Cells do not show organelles when viewed under the prophase
IV. The nucleolus or nucleoli degenerate completely
a) I only
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) All of these

20. Which of the following event distinguishes prophase-I of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?
a) Nuclear membrane breaks down
b) Chromosomes become visible
c) Homologous chromosomes pair up
d) Spindle forms

Answers

1 c 2 a 3 d 4 d 5 a 6 a 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 d 11 b 12 b 13 a 14 a 15 b 16 d 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 c

Solutions

1 (c)
Meiosis first is allowed by second meiotic division, which is essentially a mitotic division and is referred as mitotic. In anaphase-II of meiosis-II, the chromosome and centromere divide. The sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite pole.

2 (a)
In meiosis (meiotic-I), chromosome number becomes half to that of parent chromosome.

3 (d)
Plant cytokinesis usually occurs by cell plate method. The spindle usually pesists during cytokinesis. Central part of spindle grows in size and forms an interdigited complex called phragmoplast. Cell plate grows centrifugally

4 (d)
A-G₁, B-S, C-G₂.
Post reproductive stage of a cell includes cell growth. The term cell growth is used in the contexts of cell development and cell division. As we are concerned about growth (development) only, it refers to the growth of cell that is to increase in cytoplasmic and organelle volume that is in G₁-phase
S-phase is the sub-phase between G₁-phase and G₂-phase, during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplication in the cytoplasm. The amount of DNA per cell doubles in the nucleus. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C, then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number

5 (a)
S or synthetic phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During this phase, the amount of DNA per cell doubles.
The second stage of prophase-I is called zygotene. During this stage, chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes. Synapsis is accompanied by the formation of a complex structure called synaptonemal complex.

6 (a)
Mitosis is one of the types of cell division, which helps in regeneration. Because it keeps all the somatic cells of an organism genetically similar, so that they are able to regenerate a part or whole of the organism

7 (b)
During meiosis, four haploid cells are produced by reductional division from a single diploid cell. Parent cell contains replicated chromosomes, but the daughter cells contains unreplicated chromosomes

8 (d)
The interphase, as called the resting phase, is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication.
It is the phase between two successive M-phases
The interphase is divided into three further classes
G₁-phase (Gap 1), S-phase (synthesis) and G₂-phase (Gap 2)

9 (c)
Crossing over occurs during pachytene or thick thread or pachynema substage of prophase-I of meiosis. During this stage, an exchange of portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes occur. At chiasma, the chromatids break rejoin in such a way that sections are exchanged.

10 (d)
Out of two alleles present at the same locus of two chromosomes of a homologous pair, one is transmitted to a gamete as the later receive one chromosome of a homologous pair.

11 (b)
In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation. A number of elements called phragmoplasts are derived from ER and Golgi body. These elements line up at equator during anaphase and later fuse to form cell plate.

12 (b)
During metaphase, the nuclear envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes are spread through the cytoplasm of the cell. Condensation of chromosomes is completed and it can be observed under the microscope. At this stage, the morphology as well as the number of chromosomes can be easily studied

13 (a)
Interphase has variable duration. During this period, the DNA of chromosomes replicates. Chromosome material is in the form of very loosely coiled threads called chromatin. Centrioles already have replicated

14 (a)
During anaphase-I, the number of chromosomes become half.

15 (b)
G₀-phase.
Some cells that do not divide further, exit G₁-phase and enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remains metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism

16 (d)
The interphase is also called the resting phase. It is the time during which the cell gets prepared for division by undergoing both cell and DNA replication in an orderly manner

17 (c)
The cells, which do not divide further, do not proceed beyond the G₁-phase and start undergoing differentiation into specific type are said to be in G₀-phase.

18 (c)
Division of cyptoplasm is called cytokinesis ( Gr. kitos=cell; kinesis=movement).

19 (d)
At the end of prophase, several characteristic events can be observed. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. Two chromatids attach together to form chromosomes
Assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by, microtubules (proteinaceous components) of the cell cytoplasm. When observed under the microscope cells at the last stage of prophase, do not shows cell organelles like, Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope

20 (c)
Prophase-I of Meiosis Prophase of Mitosis
Prophase-I is very long and elaborate, comprising 5 sub-phases
Prophase chromosomes appear double from the very start
There is no pairing of homologous
Chromosomes, hence no chance of crossing over Prophase is relatively very short and simple
Prophase-I chromosome do not look double in the beginning
Homologous chromosomes pair and often undergo crossing over in prophase-I

Questions 21-40

21. During mitosis, number of chromosomes gets
a) Change
b) No change
c) May be change if cell is mature
d) May be change if cell is immature

22. I. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles their identity is lost as discrete elements
II. Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters
III. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
Above features indicates which phase of mitosis
a) Anaphase
b) Telophase
c) Cytokinesis
d) S-phase

23. What would be the change in the chromosome number, during S-phase?
a) No change
b) The number of chromosome doubles
c) The number of chromosome doubles only in case of diploid cell
d) The number of chromosome doubles only in case of haploid cell

24. Arrange the following events of meiosis in a correct sequence and choose the correct option
I. Terminalisation
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction of genomes
a) IV, III, II and I
b) III, II, I and IV
c) II, I, IV and III
d) I, IV, III and II

25. What is the approximate percentage duration of cell cycle that comes under interphase in humans?
a) 99%
b) 95%
c) 25%
d) 5%

26. Which of the following stage of meiosis is responsible for deciding genetic constitution of gametes?
a) Metaphase-II
b) Anaphase-II
c) Metaphase-I
d) Anaphase-I

27. …A…. mitotic cell division is only seen in the diploid somatic cells, while the …B… can show mitotic divisions in both haploid and diploid cells.
Identify A and B form the options given below
a) A-Animals; B-plants
b) A-Plants; B-animals
c) A-Bacterial; B-viruses
d) None of these

28. Given diagram indicates which of the following phase of mitosis? Choose the correct option

a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase

29. In meiosis, the chromosome number
a) Reduces by half
b) Increase by twice
c) Increase by four times
d) Reduces by one-fourth

30. The phase between two successive M-phase is called
a) S-phase
b) G₁-phase
c) G₂-phase
d) Interphase

31. At the end of meiosis-II, number of haploid cells formed are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
d) None of these

32. The transition between meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
a) Interkinesis
b) Cytokinesis
c) Diakinesis
d) Karyokinesis

33. Synapsis occurs between
a) A male and a female gamete
b) mRNA and ribosomes
c) Spindle fibres and centromere
d) Two homologous chromosomes

34. In which stage of cell division, chromosomes are most condensed?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

35. Which of the protein is found in spindle fibre?
a) Tubulin
b) Albumin
c) Mucin
d) Haemoglobin

36. Which of the following events occurs during G₁-phase?
a) DNA replication
b) Growth and normal function of cell
c) Mutation
d) Fertilization

37. Select the correct statements regarding S-phase of interphase
I. Occurs between G₁andG₂
II. DNA replication begins in the nucleus
III. Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
IV. As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles
The option with correct statements is
a) IV and III
b) I, II, III and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, II and III

38. A material, which arrests cell division, is obtained from
a) Crocus
b) Colchicum
c) Dalbergia
d) Chrysanthemum

39. During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of sister chromatids. This event is called
a) Interference
b) Complementation
c) Non-disjunction
d) Coincidence

40. I. The cells that do not divide further, exit G₁-phase to enter an inactive stage called …A… phase of the cell cycle II. The cells that are in G₂-phase definitely continue with the …B… phase. Identify A and B to complete the given NCERT statements
a) A-G₀; B-S
b) A-S; B-G₀
c) A-M; B-G₀
d) A-G₀; B-M

Answers

21 b 22 b 23 a 24 b 25 b 26 d 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 d 31 b 32 a 33 d 34 b 35 a 36 b 37 d 38 b 39 c 40 d

Solutions

21 (b)
Mitosis was first observed by Strasburger and termed by W Flemming. During mitosis, chromosome number remain same in the daughter cells. During meiosis (reduction division), the chromosome number reduced to half in the daughter cells.

22 (b)
Telophase is the reverse stage of prophase. During this phase, the cytoplasmic viscosity decreases and the two chromosome groups reorganize themselves into nuclei. A nucleae envelope appears outside the nucleoplasm collected in the area of chromatin. Spindle fibres disappear around the poles and Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are reformed

23 (a)
During S-phase, there is no increase in the chromosomes number. If the cell has diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G_1, even after S-phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n

24 (b)
The correct sequence is
Synapsis → crossing over → terminalisation → disjunction of genomes

25 (b)
The interphase takes approximate 75-95% of the entire generation time

26 (d)
The paternal and maternal chromosomes of each homologous pair segregates during anaphase-I. Although, both (maternal and paternal) chromosomes of a homologous pair have the genes for the same traits, either chromosome of a pair may carry different alleles of the same genes. Therefore, in anaphase-I, homologous chromosomes introduces genetic variability

27 (a)
A-Animals; B-Plants

28 (a)
At the onset of anaphase, each chromosome arranged at the metaphase plate is split simultaneously and the two daughter chromatids, now referred to as chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei, begin their migration towards the two opposite poles. As each chromosome moves away from the equatorial plate, the centromere of each chromosome is towards the pole and hence at the leading edge, with the arms of the chromosome trailing behind. Thus, anaphase stage is chracterised by the following key events
Centromeres split and chromatids separate
Chromatids move to opposite poles

29 (a)
After meiosis, the chromosomes get reduce by half, producing haploid cells. The sperm and the egg are haploid cells and when they fuse during fertilization, they produce diploid original

30 (d)
The phase between two successive M-phases is called interphase.
The M-phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs and the interphase represents the phase between two successive M-phases. It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only about an hour. The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle

31 (b)
Meiosis start with one diploid containing copies of chromosome, one from mother and one from father. The cell divides twice, producing up to four haploid cells containing one copy of each chromosome

32 (a)
Interkinesis is the transition stage between meiosis-I and meiosis-II.

33 (d)
In zygotene of prophase-I, homologous chromosomes pair up. This process is called synapsis. One chromosome of the pair is from the male parent and other from the female parent.

34 (b)
In metaphase, chromosomes are shortest and show maximum condensation. Chromosomes are arranged at equatorial metaphasic plate. Structure, size and number of chromosomes are best studied at metaphase.

35 (a)
Microtubules are mainly composed of tubulin protein. These are found only in eukaryotic cellular structures like cilia, flagella, centriole, basal body, spindle fibre, etc.

36 (b)
G₁-phase is called as pre-synthetic phase or post-mitotic phase. It is the longest phase of cell cycle. In G₁-phase, a cell has two options:
Continues cycle and enters S-phase
Stops cell cycle and enters G₀-phase for undergoing differentiation.

37 (d)
S-phase is the sub-phase between G₁-phase and G₂-phase, during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplication in the cytoplasm. The amount of DNA per cell doubles in the nucleus. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C, then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number

38 (b)
Colchicine is an antimitotic drug (alkaloid) which is obtained from Colchicum (family-Liliaceae). It binds to one tubulin molecule and prevents its polymerization. The depolymerisation of tubulin result in disappearance of mitotic spindle blocking the cell’s mitotic chromosomal division at metaphase and anaphase.

39 (c)
Non-disjunction occurs when a pair of homologous chromosomes do not separate in meiosis but migrate to the same pole of the cell, resulting in an even number of chromosomes being present in the daughter cells.

40 (d)
A-G_0; B-M

This will be all for this article. See you in the next one.